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Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 32-year-old patient presents with the injury depicted in figures A and B after a motorcycle accident. Fracture comminution has been associated with which complication when treating with intramedullary nailing?
Increased operative time
Anterior cortical perforation
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A 32-year-old male sustained a left femoral shaft fracture after a boating accident. He is treated with a retrograde femoral nail with an uncomplicated postoperative course. He presents 11-months postop with persistent thigh pain that is worse with weight-bearing. His current radiographs are demonstrated in figure A. His current ESR and C-reactive protein are 12 mm/hr (reference <20 mm/hr) and 0.9 mg/dL (reference <2.5 mg/dL). What is the best treatment option for this patient?
Placement of an antibiotic nail
Nail removal with external fixator
Reamed exchange nailing
Nail removal and casting
A 28-year-old male that sustained a closed left femoral shaft fracture 12 months ago and underwent intramedullary nailing presents with persistent pain in the right thigh. The patient walks with an antalgic gait. He denies any fevers or chills. His surgical sites are well healed and there are no signs of drainage. Serum ESR and CRP are 12 mm/hr (reference <20 mm/hr) and 0.9 mg/L (reference <2.5 mg/L), respectively. Figures A and B are the AP and lateral radiographs of the left femur. Which treatment option offers the highest chance of union and enables immediate weight-bearing?
Nail removal with compression plating and open bone grafting
Closed reamed exchange nailing
Nail retention with plate augmentation and bone grafting
Electrical bone stimulator
Which of the following will most likely result with the use of a fracture table when treating the injury shown in Figures A and B?
Internal malrotation deformity
External malrotation deformity
A 55-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle crash and sustains a closed, right-sided, midshaft femur fracture. This is an isolated injury. He is treated with retrograde femoral nailing, and post-operatively is noted to have 30 degrees of internal rotation of the operative extremity, when compared with his nonsurgical side. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this malrotation deformity?
External rotation of the distal femoral segment relative to the proximal femoral segment during nailing
Internal rotation of the proximal femoral segment relative to the distal femoral segment during nailing
Iatrogenic decrease in femoral anteversion on the operative leg during nailing
Increased contralateral femoral retroversion during surgery
Internal rotation of the distal segment of the femur relative to the proximal segment of the femur during nailing
A 37-year-old male sustained the injury shown in figure A. He was treated with an intramedurally nail and a post-operative radiograph is shown in figure B. He underwent a post-operative CT Scanogram to assess for rotation. Figures C and D are of the operative side and Figures E and F are of the uninjured side. What is the version of the injured side and should any further procedures be undertaken for correction?
Femoral anteversion of 36 degrees, no further procedures required
Femoral anteversion of 36 degrees, to undergo femoral de-rotation
Neutral version, no further procedures required
Neutral version, to undergo femoral de-rotation
Femoral retroversion of 36 degrees, to undergo femoral de-rotation
A radiologist uses CT scans to perform research on rotational malalignment of femoral shaft fractures treated with intramedullary nailing. He determines the angle between a line drawn tangential to the femoral condyles and a line drawn through the axis of the femoral neck. He does this for both the injured and uninjured sides. In Figure A, what malalignment is present for the injured left side compared with the uninjured right side?
Internal rotational malalignment of 13°
External rotational malalignment of 13°
Internal rotational malalignment of 3°
External rotational malalignment of 3°
A 35-year-old man is thrown from his vehicle and sustains a left proximal femoral shaft fracture and right distal femoral shaft fracture. The surgeon elects to treat both fractures with reamed intramedullary nailing. Which of the following is true regarding the risk of malrotation?
The left femur (proximal fracture) is at increased risk of internal malrotation and the right femur (distal fracture) is at increased risk of external malrotation.
The left femur (proximal fracture) is at increased risk of external malrotation and the right femur (distal fracture) is at increased risk of internal malrotation.
Malrotation does not depend on fracture location, but whether the nail is placed antegrade or retrograde.
Both femora are at increased risk of internal malrotation.
Malrotation does not depend on fracture location, but whether the nail uses a piriformis entry point or a trochanteric entry point.
A 23-year-old man undergoes intramedullary nailing for a comminuted right femur fracture. Three weeks after surgery, CT scans are performed to assess for rotational malalignment. In Figure A, the angular rotation of the right femoral neck is internal rotation of 13° while the angular rotation of the left femoral neck is external rotation of 13°. In Figure B, the angular rotation of the right and left femoral condyles is external rotation of 17° and 3°, respectively. At revision surgery, in order to correct the rotational malalignment, the right distal femur must be rotated which of the following?
Internally by 20°
Externally by 20°
Internally by 14°
Externally by 14°
Internally by 40°
A 24-year-old male sustains the isolated injuries shown in Figures A and B during a high-speed motor vehicle accident. On physical examination, the overlying skin is intact and there is no evidence of a Morel-Lavallée lesion. Which of the following surgical techniques is considered to have the highest rate of fracture malreduction with this combined injury?
Antegrade cephalomedullary nail
Retrograde intramedullary nail and 3 cannulated screws
Retrograde intramedullary nail and sliding hip screw
Antegrade intramedullary nail and 3 cannulated screws
Plate fixation of the diaphyseal fracture and 3 cancellous screws
A 25-year-old male presents following a motor vehicle collision with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 7. Subsequent imaging in the trauma bay demonstrates a bifrontal cerebral contusion, an L4 burst fracture, multiple rib fractures, an LC-1 type pelvic ring injury, a femoral shaft fracture, and an open ipsilateral tibial shaft fracture. He is intubated and an intracranial pressure monitor is placed which consistently measures 30mm Hg. He is normotensive with a lactate of 1.5 after 2 liters of crystalloid and 1 unit of packed red blood cells. Which of his injuries would most dictate a temporizing approach with external fixation of his femoral shaft fracture instead of reamed intramedullary nailing?
L4 burst fracture
Bifrontal cerebral contusion
Open ipsilateral tibia fracture
LC1 pelvic ring injury
A 22-year-old male sustains the injury seen in Figures A and B as the result of a motor vehicle collision. He subsequently undergoes the procedure shown in Figures C and D with a 12 millimeter nail. When would full weight-bearing be allowed after surgery?
After consolidation is seen
A 34-year-old male presents after falling off a roof at his job. He has an obvious deformity of his left lower extremity, and injury radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. He has no other injuries. Which of the following definitive treatment algorithms will most likely lead to the best outcomes in this patient?
Closed reduction and percutaneous screw fixation of the femoral neck, followed by reamed antegrade nailing of the femur fracture
Reamed antegrade nailing of the femoral shaft fracture, followed by open reduction and percutaneous screw fixation of the femoral neck fracture
Reamed retrograde nailing of the femoral shaft fracture, followed by closed reduction and percutaneous screw fixation of the femoral neck
Open reduction and screw fixation of the femoral neck, followed by reamed retrograde nailing of the femoral shaft fracture
Open reduction and screw fixation of the femoral neck, followed by plating of the femoral shaft fracture
A 25-year-old male sustained a closed midshaft femur fracture following a motor vehicle collision. He is taken to the operating room for supine intramedullary nail fixation of the fracture. Figure A is a lateral fluoroscopic view of the distal femur taken just prior to distal interlocking screw placement. What change in position (with the C-arm stationary) would be expected to produce a perfect lateral view of the interlocking hole?
Raising the leg
Lowering the leg
Internal (or external) rotation of the leg
Abduction (or adduction) of the leg
A 22-year-old male undergoes retrograde intramedullary nailing for the injury seen in Figure A. Which of the following would place branches of the femoral nerve and deep femoral artery at greatest risk during placement of the interlocking screw seen in Figure B?
Anterior to posterior placement above the lesser trochanter
Anterior to posterior placement below the lesser trochanter
Lateral to medial placement above the lesser trochanter
Lateral to medial placement below the lesser trochanter
Open placement with blunt dissection down to bone
Which of the following is an advantage of computer-assisted navigation used to place medullary nail interlocking screws compared to a freehand techinque?
Reduced fluoroscopy time
More reliable placement of interlocking screws through the nail
Reduced procedure time
Increased quality of fluoroscopic images
Improved accuracy of screw length
A 34-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains several orthopaedic injuries. Figure A shows a red line representating a fracture of the proximal femur. This fracture orientation is most often present when found concomitantly with which of the following orthopaedic injuries?
Ipsilateral acetabular fracture
lumbar spine burst fracture
Ipsilateral femoral shaft fracture
Anterior-posterior compression pelvic injury
Ipsilateral calcaneus fracture
Which of the following factors is most associated with malrotation during antegrade or retrograde femoral nailing?
Level of primary fracture line
Use of a piriformis starting portal
Closed reduction technique
A 23-year-old male presents following a motorcycle collision with the injury shown in figure 1. In addition to orthogonal radiographs, which of the following studies is best to evaluate for an ipsilateral femoral neck fracture?
AP radiograph of the hip in external rotation
AP femur in traction
CT scan with 2-mm cuts
No additional studies are needed
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in an MVC. He is found to have a closed left femoral shaft fracture (Figures A and B) and a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13. A CT scan of the head is performed and demonstrates no significant bleeding. He has no other injuries and is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following statements is true?
Early stabilization of the patient's femur fracture places him at risk for increased pulmonary complications
Surgical intervention should be delayed due to the patient's head injury
Damage control orthopaedics (DCO) using external fixation is indicated for this patient
Early stabilization of the patient's femur fracture does not place the patient at increased risk for worsening neurologic outcomes
A concomitant chest injury would always be a contraindication to early fixation of the patient's femur fracture