Please rate topic.
Average 3.9 of 25 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
A 27-year-old male bodybuilder presents to the office with vague, deep shoulder pain and weakness with his bench press. His examination is somewhat difficult due to his large size, but no significant abnormal findings are noted. Radiographs are normal, and an MRI arthrogram is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of his complaints?
Pectoralis major rupture
Supraspinatus partial thickness tear
Tendonitis of the long head of the biceps
Posterior labral tear
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 20-year-old college football offensive lineman undergoes arthroscopic right shoulder surgery for the injury shown in Figure A. Post-operatively he complains of burning pain in the region marked in yellow on Figure B. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?
Title: The Batters Shoulder and Posterior Labral Tears Speaker: Christopher S. A...
Arthroscopic video demonstrating probing a Kim lesion. Kim lesions are an incom...
Arthroscopic shoulder posterior labral repair for instability
HPI - 32 yr old male with hx of "shoulder dislocation" when in high school during football. Not aware if posterior or anterior. Was scheduled to have surgery back then but choose not to. Did well for many years but recently started to develop locking and catching and occational shoulder pains, otherwise very functional.
Options for this patient?