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A 67-year-old woman presents with chronic groin pain 5 months after undergoing total hip arthroplasty. A representative native MRI (Figure A) shows inflammation in the structure marked with the red arrow. What is the most likely cause of inflammation of this structure in this patient?
Excessive femoral offset
Decreased limb length compared to the contralateral side
Increased limb length compared to the contralateral side
Anterior overhang of the acetabular component
Excessive anteversion of the acetabular component
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A 62-year-old man undergoes total hip arthroplasty 6 months ago. He is now presenting with groin pain, which is exacerbated when he is going up the stairs, but not down the stairs. He has pain and significant weakness with resisted hip flexion. He is afebrile and laboratory markers are unrevealing for infection. His recent radiographs are depicted in Figures A and B. Which of the structures depicted in the representative image in Figure C (labeled 1-5) is responsible for his pain?
Figures A and B are the radiographs of a 66-year-old female who underwent an uncomplicated right THA through a direct lateral approach 3 months ago. In comparing the patients pre and post-operative films, you recognize that the femoral offset was decreased by 2 mm, but her leg length was increased by 3 mm compared to preoperative films. Based on the current radiographs, which of the following is this patient most likely to exhibit?
A 67-year-old female complains of anterior groin pain one year following a primary, uncemented total hip arthroplasty. The pain is exacerbated when she tries to climb stairs or get up from a seated position. She denies any recent fevers or chills. On physical exam, the pain is reproduced with resisted seated hip flexion. Laboratory analysis, including WBC, ESR, and CRP are within normal limits. Radiographs reveal that the components are appropriately positioned without evidence of loosening or fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate at this time?
Revision of the acetabular component
Image-guided diagnostic injection of lidocaine into the iliopsoas tendon sheath
Conservative management including activity modifications, NSAIDs, and physical therapy
A 62-year-old female has persistent activity related anterior groin pain 10 months after total hip arthroplasty (THA). Infection workup is negative. New radiographs are unchanged compared to the intial films provided in Figures A and B. Pain is temporarily relieved following an injection of lidocaine and cortisone into the iliopsoas tendon sheath. What is the next appropriate treatment option?
Indefinite activity modification
Iliopsoas tendon release
Femoral component revision
Acetabular component revision
Femoral and acetabular component revision
Figures A and B are the radiographs of a 62-year-old patient who presents to the office for evaluation of right groin pain following THA performed 12 months ago. The pain has started insidiously. The patient reports living on the third floor and has pain mostly with stair climbing. She denies start-up pain or pain at rest. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Femoral component loosening
Acetabular component loosening
Greater trochanter fracture
A 65-year-old male complains of continued groin pain 18 months following total hip arthroplasty. The pain is worse with activity, specifically with hip extension during gait. Hip radiographs show no fracture or loosening of the components. Lab values including ESR and CRP are within normal limits, and a hip aspiration yields a nucleated cell count of 500 and no growth on culture. Which of the following is most likely to determine the nature of the continued pain?
Greater trochanteric bursa injection
Repeat aspiration of the hip joint
Local anesthetic injection of the iliopsoas tendon sheath
Ober test on physical exam
Radiographs of the knee