3.8 of 52 Ratings
A 61-year-old man with left hip OA presents to clinic for persistent left hip pain despite a trial of conservative therapy. The decision is made to proceed with total hip arthroplasty via a direct anterior approach. Which of the following correctly describes the superficial internervous plane of this approach?
Rectus femoris (femoral n.) & tensor fascia lata (superior gluteal n.)
Tensor fascia lata (femoral n.) & sartorius (superior gluteal n.)
Rectus femoris (femoral n.) & gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.)
Sartorius (femoral n.) & gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.)
Sartorius (femoral n.) & tensor fascia lata (superior gluteal n.)
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A 70-year-old male returns to your clinic having decided to pursue hip replacement for his intractable pain. Which of the following scenarios is associated with the greatest risk of dislocation following primary total hip arthroplasty?
Smith-Peterson approach with failed capsular repair
Watson-Jones approach with direct penetration of iliospoas with retractors
Hardinge approach with acetabular cup placement in 40 degrees of abduction
Direct anterior approach with 15 degrees of anteversion
Moore approach to the hip with capsulectomy
A minimal-incision technique with an incision no more than 10 centimeters has which of the following advantages compared to a standard incision for a total hip replacement?
lower post-operative visual analogue pain score
less transfusion requirement
shorter length of stay
better cosmetic result
less pain medication requirement
During a minimally invasive approach to total hip arthroplasty a femoral periprosthetic fracture occurs. Which of the following steps is crucial to properly treat this complication?
Transitioning to an extensile approach to adequately visualize and reduce the fracture
Limiting post-operative weight bearing
Switching to a cemented femoral stem to avoid the stresses created during press-fit fixation
Delaying the arthroplasty until the fracture has healed
Supplementing the fracture with autograft