4.2 of 72 Ratings
Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
For which of the metacarpal fractures shown in Figures A-E is buddy taping and an optional follow-up appropriate?
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
After a night out on the town, a 21-year-old college student strikes an inanimate object. The next morning the brash young man notes that his hand is swollen, tender, and painful to move. He presents that day to your clinic with the images seen in Figures A and B. You are able to reduce the injury and the reduction is initially maintained in an appropriately-molded splint. You obtain follow-up radiographs one week later which demonstrate recurrent dislocation. The next step in management should be:
Discontinue immobilization, discharge non-weight-bearing but with early active range of motion
Repeat reduction, follow up in 7-10 days for splint removal
Repeat reduction, follow-up in 7-10 days for repeat images in plaster, immobilization for 4 weeks so long as reduction is maintained
Schedule for closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
Schedule for open reduction, CMCJ arthrodesis with plate application
After losing an arm-wrestling match, an enraged orthopaedic resident punches a wall and has immediate pain and swelling about his dominant right hand. His co-resident examines his hand under fluoroscopy and identifies the injury noted in Figures A and B. The muscle responsible for the primary deforming force in this injury is innervated by which nerve?
Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)
Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
Extensor branch of ulnar nerve
A 25-year-old female is involved in a motorcycle collision and presents with the injuries seen in Figures A through D. What is the best option for definitive management of the injuries seen in Figure D?
Open reduction and internal fixation
Closed reduction and casting