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Figures 26a through 26c show the MRI scans of a 47-year-old man who underwent arthroscopic shoulder surgery 6 months ago and continues to have pain despite a prolonged course of rehabilitation. Management should now consist of
rotator cuff repair.
open reduction and internal fixation.
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A 22-year-old man presents with shoulder pain. Radiographs are shown in Figure A and B. What is the most likely cause?
Acute acromial fracture
Type IV acromioclavicular separation
Failure of fusion between the meso-acromion and pre-acromion
Failure of fusion between the meso-acromion and meta-acromion