4.3 of 27 Ratings
A 27-year-old man presents with shoulder pain. Radiographs are shown in Figure A and B. What is the most likely cause?
Acute acromial fracture
Type IV acromioclavicular separation
Failure of fusion between the meso-acromion and pre-acromion
Failure of fusion between the meso-acromion and meta-acromion
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
Figures 26a through 26c show the MRI scans of a 47-year-old man who underwent arthroscopic shoulder surgery 6 months ago and continues to have pain despite a prolonged course of rehabilitation. Management should now consist of
rotator cuff repair.
open reduction and internal fixation.