Osteomyelitis - Pediatric

(OBQ18.19) Which of the following statements regarding acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in pediatric patients is true?

(SBQ18BS.12) A 13-year-old girl with fevers, chills, and rigor for the last 2 weeks presents with the MRI findings shown in Figure A. She undergoes CT-guided biopsy and culture. Final cultures reveal methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). She becomes septic and is taken to the operating room for urgent surgical debridement. Which of the following is often associated with this diagnosis and requires close surveillance in the acute setting?

(OBQ16.270) Figures A and B are the AP and lateral radiographs of a 10-year-old female who presents to the office with 1-2 months of worsening left ankle pain. She does not recall any trauma. Physical exam demonstrates tenderness at the medial left ankle, but no instability. An MRI is obtained and shown in Figure C. The patient undergoes CT-guided biopsy and the histology slides are shown in figures D and E. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(OBQ14.254) A 9-year-old boy presents to clinic with 3 month history of left ankle pain. His representative radiograph is shown in Figure A. He has tenderness with palpation. His bloodwork shows elevated ESR. A biopsy is obtained and is shown in figures B and C. All of the following statements are true for this condition EXCEPT:

(OBQ14.138) A 5-year-old boy presents with temperature of 104 degrees Fahrenheit and painful weight bearing on the left lower extremity for one day. Hip motion is painless, but knee motion is painful. Peripheral white blood cell count is 21,000 per microliter (reference range [rr] 4,500-13,500). Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 35 mm/hr (rr 0-10 mm/hr). C-reactive protein (CRP) is 72 mg/L (rr 0-9 mg/L). An aspirate of the knee was performed successfully with a scant amount of clear synovial fluid with a cell count of 1,000. Figures A, B and C show axial T1 fat saturated, sagittal T1 fat saturated and coronal short tau inversion recovery magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) images of the left femur. After being fully treated for this condition, what study may be needed in late-term follow-up if clinically indicated?

(SBQ13PE.31) An 8-year-old girl presents to the emergency room with a 4-day history of limp and temperature 100.7 F. Lab results show a white blood cell count of 13,000 cells/µL (reference range, 4500-11000 cells/µL), hematocrit 33% (reference range, 41%-50%), and C-reactive protein of 14 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). MR imaging demonstrates osteomyelitis of the proximal tibia without an abscess. During the work-up in the ER, the patient became hypotensive. What is the mechanism of action of the empiric antibiotic appropriate for this patient?

(OBQ12.95) A 9-year-old boy was placed in a short leg splint in an emergency department after twisting his ankle during recess. He presents 10 days later with increasing pain and fevers up to 39 degrees C over the last 3 days. The splint is removed revealing intact skin integrity with notable swelling and erythema overlying the distal fibula. Lab results include a C-reactive protein level of 12mg/L (normal 0-3.2 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 38mm/h (normal 0-20mm/h) and a white blood cell count of 12.3 K/mm3(normal 4.3 -11.4 K/mm3). Radiographs are included in Figures A and B. MRI images include T1, T2 and post-contrast in Figures C-E, respectively. What is next step in management?

(OBQ11.29) A 9-year-old boy is being treated for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of the distal tibia with appropriate IV antibiotic therapy. After three days of treatment, he fails to show any clinical improvement. Advanced imaging is obtained and reveals a 1.5x1.5cm abscess in the distal tibia. The patient subsequently undergoes formal open surgical debridement, without complications. Following surgery, serial evaluations of which of the following studies is the most expeditious method to determine the early success of treatment?

(OBQ09.161) A 6 year-old boy develops tenderness at the right heel and avoids putting weight on the right extremity after stepping on a nail 2 weeks ago while wearing tennis shoes. His mother notes that he has had a fever of 39.0. Calcaneal osteomyelitis caused by a puncture wound has an increased rate of which of the following compared to hematogenous osteomyelitis?

(OBQ08.50) Sequestrum is defined as which of the following?

(OBQ08.97) A pediatric patient has just been diagnosed with osteomyelitis of the femur. All of the following are risk factors for the development of deep venous thrombosis EXCEPT?

(SAE07PE.36) A 6-year-old boy with acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of the distal femur is being treated with intravenous antibiotics. The most expeditious method to determine the early success or failure of treatment is by serial evaluations of which of the following studies?

(SAE07PE.14) A 2-year-old girl has had a 2-day history of fever and refuses to move her left shoulder following varicella. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 75 mm/h and a peripheral WBC count of 18,000/mmP3P. What is the most common organism in this scenario?

(OBQ07.232) An afebrile 8-year-old Ethiopian girl presented with a limp. Two years earlier, she had had mild trauma followed by a “bone infection” and had received short courses of oral antibiotics. Examination revealed a small, pus-secreting wound on the anterior aspect of her left thigh. Her blood count was normal, but her erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 48 mm. A radiograph and computed tomographic scan are shown in Figure A and B respectively. What do the blue arrowheads identify in both of these imaging studies?

(OBQ07.151) In which of the following patients with osteomyelitis of the tibia is surgical debridement the next best step in treatment?

(OBQ07.184) A 7-year-old boy complains of worsening left knee pain over the last 2 weeks. He has been unable to bear weight through the left lower extremity for the past 24 hours. The knee and lower leg are warm and tender to palpation. Current temperature is 100.9 degrees Fahrenheit, and CRP is 11 mg/dL (nml <1). A radiograph is provided in Figure A. A joint aspiration yields 2 mL's of synovial fluid demonstrating a cell count of 2,500 and no organisms on gram stain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

(OBQ06.167) A 7-year-old boy presents with right elbow and left wrist swelling for the past 3 months. Clinical photos of the elbow and wrist are shown in Figures A and B, and radiographs in Figures C and D. His parents report that he has had night sweats and a loss of appetite, and physical examination is notable for bilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Leukocyte count is normal but the ESR is elevated. The child undergoes a diagnostic biopsy shown in Figure E. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(OBQ06.80) A 10-year-old boy complains of two days of worsening right knee pain. He has been unable to ambulate on the leg since waking up this morning. He denies any recent trauma to the leg. Physical exam is notable for focal tenderness over the distal femur without a palpable fluid collection. His ESR is 68 mm/hr (normal <15) and CRP is 14 mg/dL (normal <1). His temperature is currently 101.2 degrees F. Radiographs are provided in Figures A and B. An aspiration of the knee yielding 7 mL of straw colored fluid reveals 1700 nucleated cells per mL, and no organisms on gram stain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

(OBQ06.131) A 14-year-old boy presents 6 months after spraining his right ankle. Radiographs obtained at the time of injury are shown in Figure A. He returns to clinic with persistent right ankle pain. The patient denies fevers, and has an ESR of 35 mm/h (nl 0-20). CRP and WBC are normal. Current radiographs and MRI images are shown in Figures B, C, and D. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

(OBQ06.216) Septic arthritis in pediatric patients may occur secondary to direct intra-articular spread from metaphyseal osteomyelitis. This can occur in all the following joints EXCEPT?

(OBQ05.149) An 8-year-old boy twists his right leg while playing soccer 6 days ago. Initial radiographs on the day of injury were negative, and the patient was placed into a knee immobilizer by his pediatrician. Despite being non-weightbearing on crutches, his pain has continued to worsen, and he presented to the ER with a low grade fever and irratibility. A current bone scan and MRI is shown in Figure A and B. Examination shows no knee effusion but there is tenderness to palpation over the proximal tibia. Current WBC and ESR is normal and CRP is elevated. What is the next most appropriate initial step in management?

(OBQ05.177) A 13-year-old girl reported left ankle pain after falling while playing soccer 3 weeks ago. The pain initially improved, but for the past 10 days she has had increased pain. She reports a decreased appetite. Her temperature is 38.9 degrees celsius and her white blood cell count is normal. The ESR and CRP are elevated and blood cultures have been drawn and are pending. Current ankle radiographs are normal and T1 and T2 MRI images are shown in Figures A and B, respectively. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?

(SBQ04PE.24.1) a 12-year-old boy presents with worsening right foot pain for 7 days. He is exquisitely tender over the 1st metatarsal. MRI of the right foot can be seen in Figure A. After surgical decompression and antibiotics, which of the following is the best indicator of response to treatment?

(SBQ04PE.28) A 10-year-old male presents with refusal to bear weight on his right lower extremity. He reports falling off his bicycle 5 days prior. His right knee is warm to the touch and an effusion is noted. He has a temperature of 103.4°F and his laboratory values are remarkable for elevated ESR, CRP, and WBC. Radiographs of the knee are normal. A knee aspiration is performed. Aspiration reveals 1,000 WBC with 30% PMNs. What is the best next step?