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Technique guide are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including the ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 16-year-old male patient sustains a right shoulder injury. Growth charts and radiographic assessment estimate less than 1 year of growth remaining. Which of the following shoulder injuries would be best treated with closed reduction and percutanous pinning?
Minimally displaced greater tuberosity fracture (<5mm)
Medially angulated proximal humerus metaphyseal fracture (10-degrees)
Neer-Horowitz classification Type I proximal humerus physeal fracture
Neer-Horowitz classification Type III proximal humerus physeal fracture
Displaced distal clavicle fracture (<5mm)
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A 9-year-old boy sustains an injury to his right shoulder during a skateboarding fall. He complains of pain and deformity. No deficits are present on neurovascular exam. Shoulder radiographs are provided in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Immobilization in a sling and follow-up radiographs
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
Closed reduction and spanning external fixation
Closed reduction and intramedullary fixation
Open reduction internal fixation with a plate construct
Which of the following answers represents the ratio of growth from the proximal and distal growth plates in a humerus, respectively?