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a 21-year-old male has 6 months of increasing knee pain and has recently noticed a mass at his knee. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. A biopsy specimen of the proximal tibia mass is shown in Figure C. What is the most appropriate first step in management?
Wide surgical excision
Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
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This is the largest telangiectatic osteosarcoma (TOS) series in the literat...