Please rate topic.
Average 3.7 of 30 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now.
A 34-year-old male sustains the closed finger injury shown in Figure A one week ago. He undergoes closed reduction and pinning shown in Figure B to correct alignment. Which of the following is responsible for the apex palmar fracture deformity noted on the preoperative radiographs?
Indirect pull of the central slip on the distal fragment and the interossei insertions at the base of the proximal phalanx
Intrinsic muscle fibrosis and intrinsic minus contracture
PIP joint volar plate attenuation and extensor tendon disruption
Rupture of the central slip with attenuation of the triangular ligament and palmar migration of the lateral bands
Flexor tendon disruption with associated overpull of the extensor mechanism
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
What is the optimal treatment for the proximal phalanx fracture shown in Figure A?
Open reduction and placement of two 0.045-inch K-wires placed longitudinally through the metacarpal head
Application of a 1.5-mm straight plate applied dorsally through and extensor tendon splitting approach
Open reduction and lag screw fixation with 1.3mm screws through a radial approach
Placement of a 1.5-mm condylar blade plate through a radial approach
Open reduction and retrograde passage of two 0.045-inch K-wires retrograde trough the PIP joint