Please rate topic.
Average 3.8 of 34 Ratings
A 34-year-old male sustains the closed finger injury shown in Figure A one week ago. He undergoes closed reduction and pinning shown in Figure B to correct alignment. Which of the following is responsible for the apex palmar fracture deformity noted on the preoperative radiographs?
Indirect pull of the central slip on the distal fragment and the interossei insertions at the base of the proximal phalanx
Intrinsic muscle fibrosis and intrinsic minus contracture
PIP joint volar plate attenuation and extensor tendon disruption
Rupture of the central slip with attenuation of the triangular ligament and palmar migration of the lateral bands
Flexor tendon disruption with associated overpull of the extensor mechanism
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
What is the optimal treatment for the proximal phalanx fracture shown in Figure A?
Open reduction and placement of two 0.045-inch K-wires placed longitudinally through the metacarpal head
Application of a 1.5-mm straight plate applied dorsally through and extensor tendon splitting approach
Open reduction and lag screw fixation with 1.3mm screws through a radial approach
Placement of a 1.5-mm condylar blade plate through a radial approach
Open reduction and retrograde passage of two 0.045-inch K-wires retrograde trough the PIP joint
A 39-year-old male sustained an index finger injury 6 months ago and has failed eight weeks of splinting. A radiograph taken at the time of injury is shown in Figure A, and a current radiograph is shown in Figure B. Which of the following is true regarding open reduction and screw fixation of this injury?
High risk of symptomatic implant
Immobilization of the distal interphalangeal joint is required for 2 weeks post-operatively
High rates of post-operative infection are common
Open reduction via an approach through the nail bed leads to significant post-operative nail deformity
Range of motion of the DIP joint in the affected finger is usually less than 10 degrees post-operatively