• Mallet fracture A = distal phalanx physeal injury (pediatrics)B = fracture fragment involving 20% to 50% of articular surface (adult)C = fracture fragment >50% of articular surface (adult)
Please rate topic.
Average 4.3 of 50 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
A 42-year-old sustains a left finger injury while attempting to catch a baseball for his son. He presents with left, long finger pain and an inability to extend his middle finger at the distal interphalangeal joint. A radiograph after closed reduction and splinting is shown in Figure A. What is the best course of treatment?
Reduction and pinning
Repeat splinting of the distal interphalangeal joint in extension
Splinting of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints in extension
Fusion of the distal interphalangeal joint
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 27-year-old male presents with finger pain 2 days after suffering an injury while playing basketball. Physical exam shows swelling of the distal interphalangeal joint with no evidence of open injury. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
Extension splinting of DIP joint for 6-8 weeks
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
Open reduction and internal fixation
Swan neck deformity correction