4.4 of 52 Ratings
A 13-year-old male sustains the injury shown in Figure A. He is admitted at 10 pm with plans for surgical treatment in the morning. Overnight, he requires an increase in narcotics to control his pain. On physical examination, he has diffuse tenderness to palpation and is unable to comply with the examination. He appears distressed and his leg appears more swollen than when he was admitted. What is the next best step in management?
Emergent vascular exploration
Emergent fasciotomies with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
Elevation and observation
Emergent closed reduction and percutaneous screw placement
Urgent ORIF only
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 15-year-old male complains of pain and swelling of the right knee immediately after landing a ski jump. Radiographs are shown in Figure A. Which of the following potential concomitant diagnosis should be particularly observed for with this injury pattern?
Concurrent ACL disruption
Popliteal artery disruption
Quadriceps tendon tear
A 13-year-old boy injured his knee playing basketball and is now unable to bear weight. Examination reveals tenderness and swelling at the proximal anterior tibia, with a normal neurologic examination. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 1a and 1b. Management should consist of
a long leg cast.
fasciotomy of the anterior compartment.
open reduction and internal fixation.
A 14-year-old boy sustains the injury shown in figure A. He subsequently develops compartment syndrome and requires fasciotomy. Injury to what artery is most likely responsible?
Anterior tibial recurrent
A 14-year-old boy develops an acutely swollen right knee playing volleyball. During the examination, he is unable to perform a straight leg raise due to pain. Figure A shows a lateral radiograph of his right knee. What would be the most appropriate management of this injury?
Long leg cast
Patella tendon bearing cast
Open reduction internal fixation
Closed reduction percutaneous k wire fixation