3.2 of 34 Ratings
An 11-year-old boy sustains an elbow injury. Which of the following injuries could be appropriately managed with a long arm posterior splint for 8-12 days, followed by protected range of motion exercises?
Nondisplaced lateral condyle fracture
Acutely reduced elbow dislocation
Ulnar collateral ligament sprain
Gartland type I supracondylar fracture
Minimally displaced olecranon fracture
Select Answer to see Preferred Response