Ankle Arthrodesis

(OBQ20.13) A 57-year-old male presents with worsening right ankle pain over the previous eight months. The patient has used an ankle gauntlet brace, received several corticosteroid injections, and taken scheduled NSAIDs, but his symptoms continue to worsen. Physical exam reveals limited ankle dorsiflexion and pain with plantar flexion that is limited to 20 degrees. There is no pain with ankle inversion or eversion. He does have a history of diabetes that is complicated by peripheral neuropathy. Current radiographs are depicted in figures A and B. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

(OBQ18.110) A 46-year-old male is 2.5 years out from a closed subtalar dislocation treated with reduction and casting. His current radiographs are shown in figure A. An MRI is performed which demonstrates broad-based avascular necrosis of the talus. He has attempted bracing, injections and NSAIDs, but continues to be significantly limited. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

(OBQ18.24) A 57-year-old active patient develops increasing ankle pain over the last 2 years due to post-traumatic arthritis. Radiographs are shown in figures A and B. Despite bracing, the patient continues to have debilitating pain and decides to undergo an ankle arthrodesis. What is the optimal position for an ankle arthrodesis?

(OBQ18.25) A 65-year-old female comes to your clinic reporting a long history of left ankle pain. She has a history of left ankle septic arthritis requiring arthroscopic irrigation and debridement. She has no coronal plane deformity on standing alignment. On further exam, she has pain and swelling about the ankle joint with limited range of motion and intact sensation to 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament testing. Recent ankle aspiration showed no growth on cultures and synovial WBC of 9,800. She has failed extensive non-surgical treatment. What is the next best step in surgical management?

(OBQ17.179) A 56 year-old male underwent a tibiotalar joint fusion six months ago. He presents for a second opinion due to chronic pain and difficulty walking. His current radiographs are shown in Figure A. The patient has a history of alcoholic induced neuropathy, type 2 diabetes, and had a previous nonunion of his left femur from an unrelated injury. His tibiotalar arthrodesis was completed for treatment of post-traumatic arthritis and his infection workup is currently negative. Which of the following places the patient at greatest risk for persistent nonunion with revision surgical fixation?

(OBQ16.211) A 59-year-old male present with left ankle pain and drainage 3 years after surgery for a traumatic injury to the left ankle. He notes worsening pain over the past year. On examination ankle range of motion is limited to a 10-degree arc of motion with erythema and serous drainage from an anterior ankle incision. Figures A and B are his current radiographs. The patient requests a discussion of limb salvage surgery. Of the following, which is the best surgical plan for his condition?

(OBQ13.73) A 36-year-old construction worker sustained an ankle fracture 4 years ago after falling off a roof. Postoperative radiographs are seen in Figure A. The hardware is removed 2 years later. He now returns with ankle pain and intermittent swelling but has no difficulty with uneven surfaces. Examination reveals 5 degrees of gastrocnemius equinus contracture, pain with passive plantar and dorsiflexion, but no pain with hindfoot inversion and eversion. Recent radiographs are seen in Figure B. CT scan shows no degenerative changes in the hindfoot. What is the best treatment option?

(OBQ13.16) A 45-year-old laborer sustained the injury shown in Figure A. Closed reduction is performed and post-reduction films are shown in Figure B. He elects to proceed with nonoperative treatment. Two years later he now presents with persistent ankle pain and difficulty walking long distances. On physical exam, he is found to have an antalgic gait with limited ankle motion secondary to pain. Crepitus is felt with passive range of motion of the ankle. The most recent radiographs are shown in Figure C. An MRI report indicates the presence of degenerative changes in the ankle. What would be the most appropriate option for definitive management?

(SBQ12FA.13) A 42-year-old female sustains the injury exhibited in Figure A. Fluoroscopic images are exhibited in Figure B following open reduction and internal fixation. Should she go on to develop tibiotalar arthritis and fail conservative management for this, which of the following treatment modalities has the highest success rate?

(OBQ12.180) A 40-year-old male presents with long-standing right heel pain. He reports pain and swelling and points to the region of the sinus tarsi as the maximal area of pain, particularly when walking on uneven surfaces. He also reports a history of recurrent ankle sprains when he was younger. A clinical image of his foot posture is shown in Figure A. Inversion and eversion of the hindfoot reproduce pain. He has no discomfort with passive ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Coleman block testing reveals a rigid hindfoot. Sensation is fully intact throughout the extremity and he has full strength with ankle dorsiflexion, ankle plantarflexion and he can perform a single-leg heel rise without difficulty. A radiograph is shown in Figure B. What is the most appropriate step in management if conservative measures fail?

(OBQ09.91) A patient with subtalar and tibiotalar arthritis underwent the surgery shown in Figure A. The patient now complains of numbness on the plantar/lateral aspect of his foot including the 4th and 5th toes. Which nerve was most likely injured?

(OBQ08.60) When performing an ankle fusion, the foot should be in: