A 65-year-old female comes to your clinic reporting a long history of left ankle pain. She has a history of left ankle septic arthritis requiring arthroscopic irrigation and debridement. She has no coronal plane deformity on standing alignment. On further exam, she has pain and swelling about the ankle joint with limited range of motion and intact sensation to 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament testing. Recent ankle aspiration showed no growth on cultures and synovial WBC of 9,800. She has failed extensive non-surgical treatment. What is the next best step in surgical management?