4.1 of 29 Ratings
Figure A shows a clinical image of a 45-year-old female who complains of swelling and pain over the lateral aspect of the fifth metatarsophalangeal joint. She has tried all nonoperative recommendations with no improvement. Figure B shows an AP radiograph of her foot. What surgical treatment is indicated in this scenario?
Lateral Condylar Resection
Metatarsal Head Resection
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Distal chevron osteotomies are most indicated for which of following scenarios involving a bunionette deformity?
Type I deformities in patients who will not tolerate weight bearing restrictions post-operatively
Patients with a laterally bowed fifth metatarsal, no keratotic lesions, and a normal 4-5 intermetatarsal angle
Patients who remain symptomatic after prior extensive lateral condylar resection
Type III deformity with a 4-5 intermetatarsal angle of 13 degrees
Painful type I deformity with associated intractable lateral keratotic lesions
A diaphyseal fifth metatarsal osteotomy is the optimal surgical treatment for which of the following patients who has failed nonsurgical management?
28-year-old woman with a Jones fracture nonunion
50-year-old woman with a physiologic bow to the 5th metatarsal and a lateral prominence of the 5th metatarsal head
54-year-old woman with a widened 4-5 intermetatarsal angle and a lateral prominence of the 5th metatarsal head
35-year-old woman with prominent lateral condyle of her 5th metatarsal head, without bowing of the metatarsal and with normal 4-5 intermetatarsal angle
60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and a plantar plate rupture