Includes release of adductor from lateral sesamoid/proximal phalanx, lateral capsulotomy, medial capsular imbrication
Distal 1st MT osteotomy (intra-articular). Can perform in two planes (Biplanar distal Chevron)
reserved for mild to moderate deformities in adults and children, biplanar chevron-->correct increased DMAA
-combined with Chevron in moderate to severe deformities-hallux valgus interphalangeus
Include medial eminence removal and resection of base of proximal phalanx
-indicated in moderate to severe hallux valgus- DJD of 1st MTP- painful callosities beneath lesser MT heads
first TMT joint arthrodesis with distal soft tissue procedures (medial eminence removal, first web space release of AdH, lateral capsule release)
Nonunion (may or may not be symptomatic)
dorsiflexion of the first metatarsal with transfer metatarsalgia
Opening wedge osteotomy (often requires autograft)
-children with ligamentous laxity, flatfoot, and hypermobile first ray- adolescent with an open physis
Please rate topic.
Average 4.3 of 83 Ratings
Technique guide are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including the ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 56-year-old male laborer presents with the deformity shown in Figure A and B. He complains of long standing pain and swelling over the medial aspect of his right forefoot only. There is minimal tenderness with full flexion and extension of the first metatarsophalangeal joint and no tarsometatarsal joint laxity bilaterally. What treatment is most appropriate for this patient?
Bilateral first metatarsalphalangeal arthrodesis
Bilateral first metatarsal osteotomy with distal bunionectomy
Distal biplanar Chevron osteotomy of right foot only
Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy combined with Akin osteotomy of right foot only
Bilateral Lapidus procedure combined with bilateral biplanar chevron osteotomy
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 45-year-old woman undergoes surgical treatment for hallux valgus. One year later she presents with the painless foot deformity shown in Figure A. All of the following variables can lead to the development of this deformity EXCEPT:
Resection of the fibular sesamoid
Resection of the tibial sesamoid
Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the first metatarsal head secondary to a distal osteotomy
Excessive postoperative bandaging
Excessive medial capsular reefing
The procedure shown in Figure A would be most appropriate for which of the following scenarios?
HVA = 10, IMA = 6, DMAA= 7, congruent joint
HVA = 40, IMA = 20, DMAA = 8, advanced MTP arthritic changes
HVA = 20, IMA = 10, DMAA = 20, congruent joint
HVA = 16, IMA = 12, DMAA = 14, congruent joint, TMT hyper-mobility
HVA = 18, IMA = 12, DMAA = 9, congruent joint
A 47-year-old female presents with persistent left great toe pain. Two years prior, she underwent hallux valgus corrective surgery with a Chevron osteotomy. Figure A exhibits her most recent radiograph. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment?
Post-traumatic arthritis of the metatarsal head and MTP arthrodesis
Osteonecrosis of the metatarsal head and intraarticular osteotomy
Osteonecrosis of the metatarsal head and MTP arthrodesis
Hallux varus and lateral capsular imbrication
Hallux valgus recurrence and conservative management
A 47-year-old woman that works as an attorney has a 3-year history of bilateral painful forefeet that is exacerbated with the dress shoes she wears for work. Physical examination reveals bursal inflammation and calluses at the medial eminence of the first metatarsal with a 1st metatarsalphalangeal (MTP)joint deformity that passively corrects. A clinical image is shown in Figure A and a radiograph is shown in Figure B. The hallux valgus angle (HVA) is measured at 23 degrees and the intermetatarsal angle (IMA) is measured at 12 degrees. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate for correction of her deformities?
Distal metatarsal osteotomy (Chevron)
Closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal phalanx (Akin) combined with distal soft tissue release (Modified Mcbride)
Resection of medial eminence (Silver bunionectomy)
Proximal metatarsal osteotomy and first MTP arthrodesis
Metatarsal cuneiform fusion (Lapidus)
A 38-year-old woman has a 2-year history of left greater than right foot pain. Physical examination demonstrates full 1st metatarsalphalangeal (MTP)joint dorsiflexion and plantarflexion with a deformity that passively corrects. A clinical image is shown in Figure A and a radiograph is shown in Figure B. The hallux valgus angle (HVA) is measured at 31 degrees and the intermetarsal angle(IMA) is measured at 16 degrees. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate for correction of her deformities?
Keller resection arthroplasty
Distal first metatarsal osteotomy (Chevron) with lateral metatarsophalangeal joint soft-tissue release (modified Mcbride)
Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy (Scarf) with lateral metatarsophalangeal joint soft-tissue release (modified Mcbride)
Metatarsal cuneiform fusion (Lapidus) with lateral metatarsophalangeal joint soft-tissue release (modified Mcbride)
Lateral metatarsophalangeal joint soft-tissue release (modified Mcbride)
A 57-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain over the bunion on her right foot. Physical exam is notable for tenderness over the medial prominence of the first metatarsophalangeal joint and hypermobility of the first ray. Shoe modifications have failed to provide relief. A clinical photograph and radiograph are provided in figures A and B. Surgical treatment with metatarsocuneiform arthrodesis is chosen. Each of the following are associated with a better clinical outcome EXCEPT:
Multiple screw fixation across the metatarsocuneiform arthrodesis
Augmentation of the metatarsocuneiform arthrodesis with bone grafting
Dorsiflexion unloading of the first metatarsal
Correction of the first intermetatarsal angle
Failure of conservative treatments prior to surgery
A 67-year old female presents with the bilateral foot deformity shown in Figures A and B. All of the following contribute to the risk of recurrence after surgery EXCEPT:
Resection of the lateral sesamoid
Lack of lateral capsular release
Lack of medial metatarsophalangeal joint capsule closure
Use of an Akin procedure alone for a moderate to severe deformity
Undercorrection of the widened 1-2 intermetatarsal (IMA) angle
A 55-year-old female attorney complains of progressive pain and deformity of the great toe. The pain is localized to a prominence of the medial metatarsal head. A clinical image is provided in figure A. Which of the following best describes the hallux deformity?
Valgus and supination
Valgus and pronation
Valgus and hyperextension
Varus and supination
Varus and pronation
A 57-year-old female underwent surgery for severe hallux rigidus. Postoperative radiographs are shown in Figure A. One year later she complains of pain at the 2nd metatarsal head and her exam shows a plantar callosity under the 2nd metatarsal head. What procedure could have been combined with her initial operation to prevent this outcome?
Second metatarsalphalangeal joint arthrodesis
Second metatarsal osteotomy (Weil) with extensor tendon and dorsal capsular release
Flexor to extensor tendon transfer (Girdlestone-Taylor)
Second metatarsal osteotomy (Helal) with extensor tendon and dorsal capsular release
Second metatarsal head resection with extensor tendon and dorsal capsular release
A 14-year-old girl has a painful hallux valgus deformity that has not responded to shoe modifications. Figure 21 shows a standing AP radiograph. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?
Distal soft-tissue realignment
Distal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment
Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment
Proximal and distal first metatarsal osteotomy
Osteotomy of the proximal phalanx
Which of the following clinical scenarios regarding hallux valgus could be appropriatley treated with a modified McBride procedure?
35-year-old female with a 20 degree HVA, a 11 degree IMA, and an incongruent 1st MTP joint
40-year-old male with a 30 degree HVA, and a 15 degree IMA, and a congruent 1st MTP joint
70-year-old female with a 35 degree HVA, and a 13 degree IMA with a hypermobile 1st ray
65-year-old female with a 25 degree HVA, a 14 degree IMA, and severe hallux rigidus
85-year old minimally ambulatory male with a 45 degree HVA, and a 20 degree IMA
A 34-year-old woman presents with right foot pain and a callus over the 1st metatarsalphalangeal joint. A clinical image is shown in Figure A. Accommodative shoewear has failed to relieve symptoms. Images displaying key radiographic angles in the evaluation of this disorder are shown in Figures B and C. This distal metatarsal articular angle (DMAA) is measured at 15 degrees. Which of the following operative procedures is most appropriate for this deformity?
Closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal phalanx (Akin)
Distal soft-tissue release
Medial eminence resection and exostectomy (Silver)