Foot Muscle Forces & Deformities

(OBQ16.130) A 32-year-old woman presents to the orthopedic clinic complaining of heel pain, especially with running. She has had 3 months of reduced physical activity over the winter months and is now returning to running in the spring. She has tried physical therapy for months along with NSAIDs with minimal improvement. On examination, she is noted to have a painful plantar callus under her 1st metatarsal head. In knee extension, the ankle dorsiflexes to -5 degrees, whereas in knee flexion the ankle dorsiflexes to 10 degrees. What procedure most appropriately addresses her pathology?

(OBQ15.211) A 42-year-old male presents with chronic plantar foot pain. The pain is worst when he wakes up, and remains persistent throughout his workday. Which of the following findings is an indication for gastrocnemius recession?

(SBQ12FA.35) A 21-year-old man suffered a traumatic laceration to his lateral right knee 2 years ago, causing a complete transection of the common peroneal nerve. Despite a nerve graft procedure at the time of injury, he has a persistent foot drop and an EMG showing no anterior or lateral compartment function. He has full strength in the deep and superficial posterior muscle compartments. He has been wearing an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) but would like to discuss surgical methods to eliminate his need for an orthosis. Which of the following tendons in Figure A would be most optimal for a single-tendon transfer in this patient?

(OBQ10.193) Which of the following best describes the physical examination test demonstrated in Figure A?

(OBQ04.112) A 54-year-old male with Protein C deficiency sustained a stroke 3 months ago with subsequent left sided weakness. The patient's skin is intact with no sign of ulcerations or callosities. His left foot is developing a varus deformity secondary to a spastic tibialis anterior. His ankle has a 5 degree plantar flexion deformity due to a gastrocnemius contracture which improves with knee flexion (positive Silverskiold test). The patient has an intrinsic minus foot with supple claw toes present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?