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Review Question - QID 3842

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QID 3842 (Type "3842" in App Search)
A 21-year-old man suffered a traumatic laceration to his lateral right knee 2 years ago, causing a complete transection of the common peroneal nerve. Despite a nerve graft procedure at the time of injury, he has a persistent foot drop and an EMG showing no anterior or lateral compartment function. He has full strength in the deep and superficial posterior muscle compartments. He has been wearing an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) but would like to discuss surgical methods to eliminate his need for an orthosis. Which of the following tendons in Figure A would be most optimal for a single-tendon transfer in this patient?
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