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A 21-year-old male reports right ankle pain after sustaining an inversion ankle injury 2 years ago. He complains of mechanical symptoms with ankle movement that continue to be symptomatic with everyday activities. During his workup, an MRI shows a 1x1 cm lateral talar osteochondral defect (OCD). When compared to medial talar OCDs, which of the following statements is true regarding lateral talar OCDs?
Increased incidence of traumatic etiology
Lesions are usually deeper
Better chance of spontaneous resolution
Usually more posterior
Are more common
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A 30-year-old professional ballet dancer presents with persistant ankle pain after an ankle sprain 6 months ago. Physical therapy and NSAID's have not alleviated the symptoms. Physical exam reveals some joint swelling but no ligamentous instability. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient?
Continue physical therapy
Avoidance of dancing with CAM walker boot for 2 weeks
MRI of the ankle
Ankle steroid injection
Diagnostic ankle arthroscopy
HPI - Right ankle sprain 9 months ago. 1 month of rest with cast
What is the most likely cause of the cysts in the talus?
HPI - No history of ankle or foot trauma.
Started complaining of pain in the ankle and midfoot in 2009, which slowly progressed.
MRI shows a 8mm x 8mm lesion in the talar dome.
How would you treat the osteochondral lesion of the talus?
HPI - A 17 year old male presented to sports clinic for assessment after twisting his ankle while playing soccer two days earlier. Prior to this recent episode, his ankle was completely asymptomatic.
XRays were taken, which revealed an OCD lesion of the medial talar dome. He was referred for an MRI. Images are shown.
How would you manage this patient's OCD lesion?