Introduction Defined as vertebral fracture with compromise of the anterior and middle column can be unstable because both anterior and middle columns are involved Mechanism axial loading with flexion at thoracolumbar junction there is fulcrum of increased motion that makes spine more vulnerable to traumatic injury Neurologic deficits canal compromise often caused by retropulsion of bone maximum canal occlusion and neural compression at moment of impact retropulsed fragments resorb over time and usually do not cause progressive neurologic deterioration Associated injuries concomitant spine fractures in 20% lamina fracture is associated with dural tear and entrapped nerve roots Anatomy Denis three column system clinical relevance only moderately reliable in determining clinical degree of stability definitions anterior column anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) anterior 2/3 of vertebral body and annulus middle column posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL) posterior 1/3 of vertebral body and annulus posterior column pedicles lamina facets ligamentum flavum spinous process posterior ligament complex (PLC) instability defined by injury to middle column as evidenced by widening of interpedicular distance on AP radiograph loss of height of posterior cortex of vertebral body disruption of posterior ligament complex combined with anterior and middle column involvement Posterior Ligamentous Complex considered to be a critical predictor of spinal fracture stability consists of supraspinous ligament interspinous ligament ligamentum flavum facet capsule evaluation determining the integrity of the PLC can be challenging conditions where PLC is clearly ruptured bony chance fracture widening of interspinous distance progressive kyphosis with nonoperative treatment facet diastasis conditions where integrity of PLC is indeterminant MRI shows signal intensity between spinous process Classification Dennis classification Type A fracture of both end-plates. The bone is retropulsed into the canal. Type B fracture of the superior end-plate. It is common and occurs due to a combination of axial load with flexion. Type C fracture of the inferior end-plate. Type D Burst rotation. This fracture could be misdiagnosed as a fracture-dislocation. The mechanism of this injury is a combination of axial load and rotation. Type E Burst lateral flexion. This type of fracture differs from the lateral compression fracture in that it presents an increase of the interpediculate distance on anteroposterior roentgenogram Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score injury characteristic qualifier points injury morphology compression (1 point) burst (+1 point) rotation/translation (+3 point) distraction (+4 point) neurologic status intact (+0 point) nerve root (+2 point) incomplete Spinal cord or conus medullaris injury (+3 point) complete Spinal cord or conus medullaris injury (+2 point) cauda equina syndrome (+3 point) posterior ligamentous complex integrity intact (+0 point) no interspinous ligament widening seen with flexion views. MRI shows no edema in interspinous ligament region suspected/indeterminate (+2 point) MRI shows some signal in region of interspinous ligaments disrupted (+3 point) widening of interspinous distance seen TLICS treatment implications score < 4 points Nonsurgical management score = 4 points Nonsurgical or surgical managment score > 4 points surgical management indicated Imaging Radiographs recommended views obtain radiographs of entire spine (concomitant spine fractures in 20%) AP shows widening of pedicles coronal deformity lateral shows retropulsion of bone into canal kyphotic deformity CT scan indications fracture on plain film neurologic deficit in lower extremity inadequate plain films MRI useful to evaluate for spinal cord or thecal sac compression by disk or osseous material cord edema or hemorrhage injury posterior ligament complex signal intensity in PLC is concerning for instability and may warrant surgical intervention Treatment Nonoperative ambulation as tolerated with or without a thoracolumbosacral orthosis indications patients that are neurologically intact and mechanically stable posterior ligament complex preserved kyphosis < 30° (controversial) vertebral body has lost < 50% of body height (controversial) TLICS score = 3 or lower thoracolumbar orthosis recent evidence shows no clear advantage of TLSO on outcomes if it provides symptomatic relief, may be beneficial for patient outcomes retropulsed fragments resorb over time and usually do not cause neurologic deterioration Operative surgical decompression & spinal stabilization indications neurologic deficits with radiographic evidence of cord/thecal sac compression both complete and incomplete spinal cord injuries require decompression and stabilization to facilitate rehabilitation unstable fracture pattern as defined by injury to the Posterior Ligament Complex (PLC) progressive kyphosis lamina fractures (controversial) TLICS score = 5 or higher Techniques Posterior Spinal Fusion Alone (no decompression) indications progression kyphosis or clear injury to posterior ligament complex, but with no significant neurologic compression Anterior decompression and stabilization (with or without posterior stabilization) indications indicated when neurologic deficits caused by anterior compression (bony retropulsion) scientific data has not shown a benefit to early decompression and stabilization technique usually includes corpectomy and strut grafting followed by anterior +/- posterior instrumentation advantage is that you do not need to do a laminectomy which will further destabilize the spine by compromising the posterior supporting structures Posterior Decompression and Fusion indications unstable fracture pattern with no need for neurologic decompression complete neurologic injury (allows earlier rehab) neural decompression direct decompression retropulsed bone can be removed via transpedicular approach indirect decompression via ligamentotaxis may occur by restoring height and sagittal alignment with posterior instrumentation arthrodesis fusion should be performed with instrumentation instrumentation should be under distraction to restore vertebral body height and achieve indirect decompression historically it was recommended to instrument three levels above and two levels below modern pedicle screws have changes this to one level above and one level below avoid laminectomy if possible as it will further destabilize the spine by compromising the posterior supporting structures Posterior Corpectomy , Ventral Decompression, Cage and Instumented 360 Degree Fusion indications indicated when neurologic deficits caused by anterior compression (bony retropulsion) scientific data has not shown a benefit to early decompression and stabilization technique unilateral pedicle resection required faciliated with new expandable cages complications dural tear radiculopathy/deficits due to nerve root injury Complications Entrapped nerve roots and dural tear from associated lamina fractures Pain most common Progressive kyphosis common with unrecognized injury to PLL Flat back leads to pain, a forward flexed posture, and easy fatigue post-traumatic syringomyelia
Technique Guide CPT Codes: 22558, Arthrodesis, anterior interbody technique, including minimal discectomy to prepare interspace (other than for decompression); lumbar 34830, Open repair of infrarenal aortic aneurysm or dissection, plus repair of associated arterial trauma, following unsuccessful endovascular repair; tube prosthesis 23615, Open treatment of proximal humeral (surgical or anatomical neck) fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of tuberosity(s), when performed; 31561 Laryngoscopy, direct, operative, with arytenoidectomy; with operating microscope or telescope Technique guide are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including the ABOS, EBOT and RC. L3 Anterior Lumbar Corpectomy and Fusion Derek Moore Spine - Thoracolumbar Burst Fractures
QUESTIONS 1 of 18 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 Previous Next Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now. Take This Question Anyway (OBQ10.47) In patients with a stable thoracolumbar burst fracture and no neurologic deficits, operative treatment has what long term outcome when compared to nonoperative management. Review Topic QID: 3135 Type & Select Correct Answer Type in at least one full word to see suggestions list 1 Improved sagittal balance 13% (487/3614) 2 Decreased pain scores 5% (172/3614) 3 Improved return to work status 5% (191/3614) 4 Improved function 2% (58/3614) 5 Increased disability and complications 74% (2692/3614) L 2 Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 5 Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now. Take This Question Anyway (OBQ09.98) You are seeing a 68-year-old female who fell out of her second story apartment window. She complains of severe low back pain and right buttock pain. Her neurologic exam shows she is an ASIA E. Imaging shows a L3 burst fracture with 10 degrees of kyphosis, 30% loss of vertebral body height, and retropulsion of bone with 20% occlusion of the spinal canal. There is no evidence of edema in posterior ligament complex on MRI. What is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic QID: 2911 Type & Select Correct Answer Type in at least one full word to see suggestions list 1 Spinal traction with bedrest for a minimum of 6 weeks 1% (27/2720) 2 Spinal orthosis and early mobilization as tolerated 90% (2455/2720) 3 Laminectomy and lateral recess decompression 1% (27/2720) 4 Laminectomy and 4 level posterior instrumented fusion 4% (112/2720) 5 Anterior corpectomy with decompression and staged 4 level posterior instrumented fusion 3% (88/2720) L 1 Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 2 Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK Sorry, this question is for PEAK Premium Subscribers only Upgrade to PEAK You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now. Take This Question Anyway (OBQ08.112) In a neurologically intact patient with the injury pattern shown in Figure A, B and C, what is the advantage of surgical treatment compared to early mobilization in a thoracolumbosacral orthosis? Review Topic QID: 498 FIGURES: A B C Type & Select Correct Answer Type in at least one full word to see suggestions list 1 Decreased kyphosis over time 10% (346/3313) 2 Decreased residual back pain 3% (96/3313) 3 Lower cost of hospitalization 1% (24/3313) 4 Earlier return to work 5% (172/3313) 5 No advantage - equivalent clinical outcomes 80% (2662/3313) L 2 Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 5 You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now. Take This Question Anyway This is an AAOS Self assessment question. Orthobullets was not involved into the editorial process, and does not have the ability to alter. If you prefer to hide SAE questions on topics simply turn them off in your Content Settings (SAE07PE.63) A 12-year-old girl has back pain after falling 20 feet and landing in the sitting position. She has no fractures or other injuries, and her neurologic examination is normal. A lateral radiograph, transverse CT scan, and reformatted sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. Which of the following methods is associated with the best long-term outcome? Review Topic QID: 6123 FIGURES: A B C Type & Select Correct Answer Type in at least one full word to see suggestions list 1 Hyperextension casting of the thoracolumbar spine for 6 weeks 12% (15/121) 2 In situ posterior fusion with instrumentation 5% (6/121) 3 Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction 24% (29/121) 4 Posterior decompression, followed by posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction 42% (51/121) 5 Anterior decompression and partial corpectomy, with anterior instrumentation 16% (19/121) N/A Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 3 You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now. Take This Question Anyway (OBQ06.93) A 32-year-old male sustained an L4 burst fracture in a car accident five days ago. On initial presentation he was neurologically intact and treated in a thoracolumbar orthosis. In the last two days he has noticed increasing difficulty voiding, decreased perianal sensation, and weakness to ankle plantar flexion. Radiographs, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging are shown in Figures A through D. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment? Review Topic QID: 204 FIGURES: A B C D Type & Select Correct Answer Type in at least one full word to see suggestions list 1 Electromyography 0% (14/3668) 2 Spinal dose corticosteroids with inpatient observation 1% (31/3668) 3 A decompressive lumbar laminectomy without fusion 14% (508/3668) 4 Percutaneous posterior instrumented stabilization from L2 to L5 with indirect decompression via distraction ligamentotaxis 10% (384/3668) 5 Anterior decompresssion with strut grafting followed by posterior instrumentation 74% (2710/3668) L 2 Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 5 You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now. Take This Question Anyway (OBQ04.41) A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department after sustaining a L1 burst fracture in a fall. A careful neurologic exam shows he is an ASIA E. MRI shows mild vertebral retropulsion with 10% central canal stenosis and no evidence of injury to the posterior ligament complex. Which of the following is true regarding surgical decompression and fixation when compared to nonoperative treatment with bracing? Review Topic QID: 102 Type & Select Correct Answer Type in at least one full word to see suggestions list 1 Patients treated with surgery return to work earlier. 2% (71/3479) 2 Patients treated with surgery have decreased pain scores. 1% (30/3479) 3 Patients treated with surgery have increased complication rates. 80% (2777/3479) 4 Patients treated with surgery have improved final SF-36 scores. 1% (34/3479) 5 All of the above 16% (554/3479) L 2 Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 3
Login to View Community Videos Login to View Community Videos California Orthopaedic Association Annual Meeting - 2017 Evolution of Care for the Thoracolumbar Burst Fracture Kirkham Wood, M.D. (COA 2017, 4.3) Spine - Thoracolumbar Burst Fractures 4/12/2018 465 views Login to View Community Videos Login to View Community Videos Seattle Science Foundation Video Collection- Spine Treatment Decisions in Thoracolumbar Trauma: Operative or Non-operative? by Kirkham B. Wood, M.D. Spine - Thoracolumbar Burst Fractures 4/16/2017 598 views Upgrade to View Premium Videos Upgrade to View Premium Videos Thoracolumbar Spine Approaches by D. Kojo Hamilton, M.D. Derek Moore Spine - Thoracolumbar Burst Fractures 4/2/2016 636 views
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