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A 21-year-old recreational baseball player presents for evaluation of anterior ankle pain that has been persistent for the past 6-8 weeks. On physical exam he is tender over the midfoot, but has full strength with dorsiflexion, plantarflexion and inversion. His radiographs are read as normal; radiographs are shown in Figure A. Representative MRI sequences are shown Figures B and C. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Cortisone injection in to the anterior tibial tendon sheath
Partial weight bearing in a boot
Non-weightbearing in a cast for planned 6-8 weeks
Open reduction internal fixation of the fracture
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An 18-year-old gymnast has had a 1-year history of foot pain. Examination reveals medial midfoot tenderness without swelling. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan of the midfoot is shown in Figure 20. What is the optimal treatment for this condition?
Partial weight bearing in a walking cast for an additional 6 weeks
Open reduction and internal fixation
Open reduction and internal fixation with autologous bone grafting
Non-weight-bearing in a cast for an additional 6 weeks
What is the most common complication associated with the injury seen in Figure A?
Longitudinal arch instability
A 24-year-old female who is training for her first marathon presents with six weeks of increasing foot pain. An AP radiograph and representative axial cut of her CT scan of her injury are seen in figures A and B. Management should consist of which of the following?
Weight bearing as tolerated in a hard soled shoe
Non weight bearing cast immobilization
Fragment excision and posterior tibial tendon advancement
Percutaneous screw fixation
Open reduction with autologous bone graft