Please rate topic.
Average 4.1 of 37 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now.
A 45-year-old man presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of several weeks of increasing midfoot pain during and after his daily run that he recently resumed after a 2-week vacation. He is found on imaging to have a navicular stress fracture. What is the most appropriate initial immobilization and weight-bearing status for this patient?
Hard-sole shoe and non-weight bearing
Hard-sole shoe and partial weight bearing
Walking boot and partial weight bearing
Short leg cast and non-weight bearing
Short leg cast and partial-weight bearing
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 21-year-old recreational baseball player presents for evaluation of anterior ankle pain that has been persistent for the past 6-8 weeks. On physical exam he is tender over the midfoot, but has full strength with dorsiflexion, plantarflexion and inversion. His radiographs are read as normal; radiographs are shown in Figure A. Representative MRI sequences are shown Figures B and C. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Cortisone injection in to the anterior tibial tendon sheath
Partial weight bearing in a boot
Non-weightbearing in a cast for planned 6-8 weeks
Open reduction internal fixation of the fracture
An 18-year-old gymnast has had a 1-year history of foot pain. Examination reveals medial midfoot tenderness without swelling. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan of the midfoot is shown in Figure 20. What is the optimal treatment for this condition?
Partial weight bearing in a walking cast for an additional 6 weeks
Open reduction and internal fixation
Open reduction and internal fixation with autologous bone grafting
Non-weight-bearing in a cast for an additional 6 weeks
What is the most common complication associated with the injury seen in Figure A?
Longitudinal arch instability
A 24-year-old female who is training for her first marathon presents with six weeks of increasing foot pain. An AP radiograph and representative axial cut of her CT scan of her injury are seen in figures A and B. Management should consist of which of the following?
Weight bearing as tolerated in a hard soled shoe
Non weight bearing cast immobilization
Fragment excision and posterior tibial tendon advancement
Percutaneous screw fixation
Open reduction with autologous bone graft