An 18-year-old collegiate rower presents with the clinical f...

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A 45-year-old man sustained the injury seen in Figure 130a 6...

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What is the most common finding during surgery for traumatic anterior shoulder instability?

Figure 43 shows an arthroscopic view of a right shoulder thr...

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A 67-year-old patient presents to clinic for evaluation of t...

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A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of ...

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A 62-year-old man with a long history of right shoulder pain and weakness is scheduled to undergo hemiarthroplasty. Based on the radiographs shown in Figures 6a through 6c, what preoperative factor will most affect postoperative functional outcome?

A 72-year-old man who underwent total shoulder arthroplasty ...

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Figures 45a and 45b show sagittal T1-weighted MRI scans of a...

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A 73-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent shoulder pain and weakness over the last year. She notes a history of proximal humerus fracture 5 years ago which was treated with hemiarthroplasty. She had been doing well up until the past year, when she noticed marked decrease in range of motion and strength. On examination, she has 2/5 strength of her shoulder in abduction and flexion and can abduct and flex her shoulder to only 70º. Her radiograph is seen in Figure A. She states her symptoms are significantly affecting her quality of life. Given these findings, what is the best treatment option at this time to regain function and improve her quality of life?

A 19-year-old collegiate pitcher presents to your clinic wit...

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You perform an all-arthroscopic surgery on a 68-year-old female hairdresser's right shoulder. You code the procedure with CPT code 29823 and submit to Medicare for processing. You have substantiated the extensive debridement code (29823) in your documentation because you:

A 68-year-old male presents to your office with radiographic...

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Internal impingement is characterized by...

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A 60-year-old right hand-dominant women fell on her outstret...

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Which of the following patients would be the most appropriate candidate for a reverse total shoulder replacement?

Complications following a reverse shoulder prosthesis o...

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A 62-year-old woman presents with chronic shoulder pain. On physical exam, she has anterior shoulder pain and her symptoms are reproduced with provocative testing of the biceps including supination against resistance and forward flexion of the shoulder against resistance. Internal and external rotation are painful, but her range of motion is intact. Shoulder radiograph and MRI images are shown in Figures A-E. Which of the following statements is true regarding the patient's condition?

Which of the following patients is the best candi...

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A 46 year-old female presents with right shoulder pain after reaching for a briefcase in the backseat of her car 9 months ago. On exam, she has active and passive forward elevation of 90 degrees, external rotation of 20 degrees, and internal rotation to her posterior ilium. Strength exam is limited by pain. She has no known history of diabetes. She has had conservative treatment including NSAIDs, intra-articular steroid injections, and physical therapy. When counseling her about surgical options, arthroscopic capsular release is characterized by all of the following except:

A 74-year-old male presents for evaluation of chronic right shoulder pain that limits his activities. An MRI reveals full-thickness retracted tears of both supraspinatus and infraspinatus with advanced atrophy and fatty infiltration. Radiographs show maintained glenohumeral joint space and acromiohumeral distance. On exam, he has full shoulder range of motion with mild weakness on empty can testing, intact external rotation strength, significant tenderness at the biceps tendon, and a positive Speed’s test. He has failed conservative treatment. What is the most appropriate surgical option?

A 76-year-old man has a two-year history of shoulder pain which no longer responds to non-operative treatments. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. He has forward flexion to 80 degrees and abduction to 70 degrees. An example of his belly push examination is shown in Figure B. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

Figures 57a and 57b are the MRI scans of a 61-year-old man who is unable to elevate his dominant arm following a golf injury 24 hours ago. He has moderate pain during attempted arm elevation. Examination reveals significant spinati atrophy and he is only able to elevate his arm fully overhead while supine. The neurologic examination is normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

Figure A shows immediate post-operative radiographs of a 75-...

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A 41-year-old male truck driver fell off his truck and tried...

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