A 78-year-old female presents with a history of right shoulder osteoarthritis. The patient reports that physical therapy has been ineffective and that activity modification and NSAIDs have not resulted in adequate pain relief. Physical examination reveals 4+/5 strength in the rotator cuff and radiographs reveal bone-on-bone arthritis with a B2 glenoid. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Which phase of gait is affected most in a patient with quadriceps atrophy?

Figure 23 shows failure of the femoral stem in a patient. What is the most likely reason for the failure?

All of the following are associated with Marfan's Syndrome EXCEPT?

Which of the following radiographs show pathology consistent...

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Displaced femoral neck fractures in the elderly population are most often treated via hemiarthroplasty. Various randomized control trials and extensive registry-based observational studies have compared cemented and uncemented hemiarthroplasty implant designs. Compared to uncemented hemiarthroplasty, what has been the one significant benefit consistently shown with cemented hemiarthroplasty?

A 19-year-old man sustained the isolated injury seen in Figure 28a. He is adequately resuscitated. A closed reduction was performed in the emergency department, and postreduction radiographs are shown in Figures 28b and 28c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?