Following application of a short leg cast, a patient reports...

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An 18-year-old male sustains a right hip injury after being tackled on the football field. Figure A shows his radiograph upon presentation to the emergency room three hours later. On physical exam, he is noted to have a foot drop and decreased sensation globally throughout his entire lower leg. Closed reduction under conscious sedation is immediately performed, and the hip is able to be ranged through a stable arc of motion following reduction. A post-reduction radiograph is shown in Figure B. Shortly after the reduction, the patient continues to have a foot drop, but his sensation is slightly improved. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 30-year-old male presents to your clinic with persistent r...

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A 35-year-old man presents with a history of right–leg compartment syndrome following a motorcycle crash, complicated by delayed diagnosis and treatment. He has persistent functional deficits in the right lower extremity and currently relies on an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) for ambulation. He reports pain and discomfort from the brace and is interested in potential surgical options to eliminate the need for it. On examination, his ankle is supple, demonstrating 40° of passive plantarflexion and 20° of passive dorsiflexion, unchanged with knee flexion or extension. Motor testing reveals 5/5 plantarflexion strength, 0/5 dorsiflexion strength, and 4/5 eversion strength. What is the most appropriate intervention to restore active ankle dorsiflexion?

A 42-year-old male presents to clinic with posterior heel pa...

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A 70-year-old high functioning female is referred to your of...

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A 17-year-old male presented to a local emergency room with the injury shown in Figure A. Given multiple issues with transferring the patient to an appropriate center for higher level of care, his progressively increasing pain was treated with increasing doses of opioid analgesics until he was assessed 14 hours later, at which point he was urgently taken to the operating room. On examination of his anterior compartment musculature intra-operatively, >75% was deemed non-viable and had to be debrided, resulting in a persistent post-operative foot drop. He is evaluated three months later, and exam finds no appreciable function of his tibialis anterior with preserved 5/5 strength in his superficial and deep posterior and lateral compartments. He has been going to physical therapy and has supple ankle range of motion, leading his surgeon to recommend a tendon transfer procedure to treat his functional deficit. The tendon of which of the following labeled structures in Figure B is the treating surgeon planning to re-route to the lateral cuneiform?

A 64-year-old male undergoes acetabular revision of his failed total hip arthroplasty using a large uncemented component. Post-operatively he is noted to have a foot drop and radicular pain in the operative extremity. A CT scan of the hip is obtained and reveals screw penetration into the sciatic notch. Where was this screw most likely inserted in the acetabulum?

A 45-year-old male presents to your clinic 10 years after a ...

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The Coleman block tes...

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A 24-year-old man dislocated his right knee in a motorcycle ...

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A 63-year-old patient undergoes a right total hip arthroplas...

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A 63-year-old patient undergoes a right total hip arthroplas...

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A 63-year-old female with a history of uncontrolled diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease presents as a consult from a long-term stroke rehabilitation unit with an inability to walk unassisted due to the persistent deformity shown in Figure A. She has been using an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) for the last 9 months, but she finds it bothersome and wishes to undergo a corrective procedure to allow for braceless ambulation. If you plan to offer her a Bridle procedure, which of the following musculotendinous units is re-routed to counteract the primary pathologic forces causing her deformity?

An 18-year-old man sustained a traumatic laceration of the c...

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Figure A is the radiograph of an 13-year-old male that prese...

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A 44-year-old patient is presenting with right dorsal foot p...

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A 40-year-old male sustains an ankle fracture-dislocation and undergoes operative fixation. His postoperative recovery is uneventful except for persistent, limited ankle dorsiflexion. He is diagnosed with an Achilles contracture and undergoes an Achilles lengthening. Which patient would also most likely benefit from an isolated Achilles lengthening procedure?

A 56-year-old female presents for evaluation of chronic left...

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A 20-year-old college volleyball player presents to your cli...

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A 35-year-old roofer sustains a fall from height onto his feet. He notes immediate pain and swelling upon his hindfoot, and is unable to bear weight. He is brought to the emergency department by his coworkers, where radiographs are obtained (Figure A). The patient is placed into a well-padded Bulky Jones splint and placed on the surgery schedule for the next day for open reduction and internal fixation. Which of the following is true regarding acute definitive fixation of his injury?

A 36-year-old woman is wearing an ankle-foot orthosis for a ...

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A 57-year old male had the procedure performed in Figure A. ...

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A 64-year-old female presents to the clinic with a traumatic...

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A 21-year-old male undergoes intramedullary nailing of the closed tibial shaft fracture shown in Figure A. At his 6-week follow-up, he is noted to have peroneal nerve deficits that were not present preoperatively. Which of the following findings is most consistent with a diagnosis of transient peroneal nerve neurapraxia as the result of his intramedullary nailing?

A 21-year-old male sustained an injury to his right knee dur...

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A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of multiple falls. She reports that she has had neck pain for several years; however, the pain has intensified over the past month. Also, over the last 2 weeks, she has been falling at home, dropping objects, and has had difficulty buttoning her shirt. A portion of the sagittal and axial cervical spine MRI is seen in Figures 1 and 2. Which answer choice describes the most common physical exam finding associated particularly with this condition?

A 40-year-old female presents with right leg pain localized to the buttock, posterior thigh, and lateral calf. In addition, she describes numbness and tingling on the dorsum of the right foot. Physical exam shows weakness to EHL. Three months of nonoperative treatment including anti-inflammatory medication, physical therapy, and selective nerve root corticosteroid injections failed to provide lasting relief and pain is still severe in nature. Her MRI is shown in Figures A and B. What would be the most appropriate management at this juncture?

An 18-year-old football player is tackled and sustains an injury to his right lower extremity. He reports pain in his knee and ankle, and numbness over the dorsum of his foot. On exam, he is noted to have a probable anterior cruciate, posterior cruciate, and lateral collateral ligament rupture with a very unstable knee, and is unable to dorsiflex his ankle. Which of the following structures is likely injured and in what direction did his knee dislocation likely occur?

After total hip arthroplasty (THA) for osteoarthritis a pati...

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A 57-year-old man with a history of chronic lower back pain ...

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A 49-year-old woman underwent a successful right ankle fusio...

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A 62-year-old woman with a valgus knee as seen in Figures A ...

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