A 50-year-old male presents with a painful medial right fore...

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Figures 60a through 60c show the intraoperative photograph, anteroposterior radiograph, and axial MRI scan of a 63-year-old man who had right groin pain 18 months after undergoing an uncemented right total hip replacement using a modular femoral neck implant and a metal-on-polyethylene bearing. His laboratory studies revealed an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 8 mm/h (reference range, 0-20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein level of 5.4 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). A preoperative aspiration revealed cultures that were negative for infection. A cell could not be obtained for evaluation because the cells were "degenerative." At the time of surgery the joint fluid was turbid in appearance; the periarticular tissues appeared avascular and tan/beige in color. An intraoperative frozen section was negative for acute inflammation. The implants were solidly fixed to bone. The cause of this patient's symptoms and the intraoperative findings most likely are attributable to

All of the following can be done to improve pati...

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As the on-call orthopedic surgeon at a rural hospital, you receive notification of a mass casualty event. The report states there are 20 or more patients en route who were victims of a mass shooting in which high-velocity firearms were used. One of the patients presents with a GCS score of 3, a palpable carotid pulse but no femoral or radial pulse, and no spontaneous breathing, even with proper airway position. He has a transcranial, abdominal, and thigh gunshot wound. What is his triage classification and appropriate initial treatment?

A 5-year-old boy is being evaluated in the emergency department after his mother states he is refusing to walk and has been febrile at home. You are consulted by the emergency department physician who reports a leukocytosis and elevated temperature. The consulting physician confirms that the patient refuses to bear weight on the right leg, and reports that radiographs are negative for any fractures. They are concerned about septic arthritis of the right knee. Which of the following would be the most helpful in the diagnosis of septic arthritis of the knee?

A 74-year-old female presents to the emergency room after a low-energy ground-level fall after she tripped over a throw rug in her apartment. Her past medical history includes hypertension, alcohol use disorder, and diabetes. Her last DEXA scan was 9 years ago, and her T-score was –1.2. She has been postmenopausal for 15 years. Her serum hemoglobin, sodium, vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus levels were all within normal limits. Radiographs obtained in the emergency room show a left transcervical femoral neck fracture, and she undergoes a left total hip arthroplasty the next day. What is the patient’s underlying diagnosis and appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient?

A 45-year-old male injured his knee while playing basketball...

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All of the following are Standards of Professionalism relating to interactions with industry for practicing orthopaedic surgeons EXCEPT:

A 57-year-old woman presents with recent-onset severe pain in her right, dominant shoulder. She denies an inciting incident. Her pain is accompanied by decreased forward flexion to 95 degrees, external rotation limited to 10 degrees, and internal rotation limited to the hip pocket. The most appropriate initial treatment that is most likely to result in pain relief is:

A 32-year-old woman has had hip pain for 8 months. Initiall...

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A healthy, active 68-year-old woman had a total hip arthropl...

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A 70-year-old woman falls and presents with pelvic pain. Physical exam shows she is able to walk without difficulty. Radiographs of the pelvis and hip are shown in Figure A, B, and C. A biopsy of the lesion in the proximal femur is shown in Figure D. What is the next best step in management of the femoral lesion?

A 78-year-old man who is an alcoholic is seen for follow-up....

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