Please rate topic.
Average 4.0 of 34 Ratings
A 21-year-old recreational baseball player presents for evaluation of anterior ankle pain that has been persistent for the past 6-8 weeks. On physical exam he is tender over the midfoot, but has full strength with dorsiflexion, plantarflexion and inversion. His radiographs are read as normal; radiographs are shown in Figure A. Representative MRI sequences are shown Figures B and C. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Cortisone injection in to the anterior tibial tendon sheath
Partial weight bearing in a boot
Non-weightbearing in a cast for planned 6-8 weeks
Open reduction internal fixation of the fracture
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
What is the most common complication associated with the injury seen in Figure A?
Longitudinal arch instability
A 24-year-old female who is training for her first marathon presents with six weeks of increasing foot pain. An AP radiograph and representative axial cut of her CT scan of her injury are seen in figures A and B. Management should consist of which of the following?
Weight bearing as tolerated in a hard soled shoe
Non weight bearing cast immobilization
Fragment excision and posterior tibial tendon advancement
Percutaneous screw fixation
Open reduction with autologous bone graft
HPI - Falling from height (4M) two days ago
No other Musculoskeletal abnormal data
NV is okay, no signs of compartment syndrome
How to manage?
HPI - 4 days ago fell of the bike
How would you treat this patient?
HPI - An otherwise healthy male complains of right foot pain that has gradually progressed over the last year. He denis any history of trauma. Now the pain is severe and limiting his function.
The patient has a history of a similar condition in left foot 11 years ago (patient reports "death" of navicular) that was treated by bone grafting years ago. He reports relief of his symptoms and now he has tolerable left foot pain.
What is the most likely diagnosis of the RIGHT foot pain?