Review Question - QID 220013

A 73-year-old male presents with persistent pain in the left hip after revision total hip arthroplasty many years ago. He denies any systemic symptoms of infection including fevers and chills, and basic laboratory results show a white blood cell count of 9,200 per microliter, a C-reactive protein level is 1.1 mg/L and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 39 mm/hr. Representative radiographs are shown in Figure A. If advanced imaging shows at least 50% available acetabular bone stock, does not show evidence of pelvic discontinuity, and does not show an elevated hip center, which of the following represents the most biomechanically stable and cost-effective method of revising the acetabular component in this patient?