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Has anybody had a case where a patient with advanced CMT disease ( core mus...
HPI - A 70 year old patient presents with the primary complaint of ongoing left knee pain that has been getting worse over the past 12 months.
The patient states that she has ambulated with a limp since childhood, but has never had surgery or any other treatment up to this point.
She states that she has been taking NSAIDs for the past 12 months which are no longer providing any relief of her knee pain.
She is now having difficulty ambulating due to the pain and has recently started using a cane for support and relief.
How would you manage this patient?
HPI - The patient has had hip pain ever since a revision THA 17 years ago. The patient reports the pain has worsened the last 30 day.
How would you treat the left (revised) hip?
HPI - Symptomatic for last two years. Before that period she managed to compensate her bilateral hip dysplasia.
Which classification is more suitable for this DDH?