Please rate topic.
Average 3.4 of 23 Ratings
A 34-year-old male sustains the closed finger injury shown in Figure A one week ago. He undergoes closed reduction and pinning shown in Figure B to correct alignment. Which of the following is responsible for the apex palmar fracture deformity noted on the preoperative radiographs?
Indirect pull of the central slip on the distal fragment and the interossei insertions at the base of the proximal phalanx
Intrinsic muscle fibrosis and intrinsic minus contracture
PIP joint volar plate attenuation and extensor tendon disruption
Rupture of the central slip with attenuation of the triangular ligament and palmar migration of the lateral bands
Flexor tendon disruption with associated overpull of the extensor mechanism
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
What is the optimal treatment for the proximal phalanx fracture shown in Figure A?
Open reduction and placement of two 0.045-inch K-wires placed longitudinally through the metacarpal head
Application of a 1.5-mm straight plate applied dorsally through and extensor tendon splitting approach
Open reduction and lag screw fixation with 1.3mm screws through a radial approach
Placement of a 1.5-mm condylar blade plate through a radial approach
Open reduction and retrograde passage of two 0.045-inch K-wires retrograde trough the PIP joint
HPI - fall in the washroom
operative or conservative
HPI - A 32-year-old male, right hand dominant, is involved in a bar altercation when he punched the skull of another individual. The patient had immediate pain in his right hand and went to the emergency room. An initial reduction was performed and the patient was placed in a splint. Post reduction films are shown. He presents to your office 4 days after the injury.
How would you treat this fracture assuming there has been no change in the post reduction films?
HPI - acute injury with cricet ball while playing cricket
How would you treat this injury?