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Review Question - QID 8909

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QID 8909 (Type "8909" in App Search)
A 51-year-old male presents for evaluation of his left foot. He states that he previously underwent multiple surgeries to the left big toe, with the most recent surgery being 10 years ago. He did well initially but over the past 3 years, he has had persistent pain of the big toe which worsens with 1st metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. His radiographs are shown in Figures A through C. His wound is well healed without any drainage. He is interested in surgical management. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?
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