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Review Question - QID 8879

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QID 8879 (Type "8879" in App Search)
A 23-year-old ballet dancer returns to your office continuing to complain of posterior ankle pain, worsened in maximum plantarflexion. She has been taking NSAIDs in conjunction with physical therapy for 3 months, and also took a 1-month break from performing while wearing a CAM boot. Despite all of these modalities she has not shown improvement. Her MRI is shown in Figure A. You are planning to address this surgically, using the approach shown on the lateral aspect of the ankle in Figure B. What is her diagnosis and which structure is most at risk with this approach?
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