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Review Question - QID 8628

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QID 8628 (Type "8628" in App Search)
A 42-year-old man has increasing pain and, to a lesser extent, some occasional left knee instability. Several years earlier he sustained a noncontact twisting injury to his knee. He had some initial soreness and pain but was able to resume his normal activities while avoiding sports. On examination, the patient has medial joint line pain, a grade 2+ Lachman, and a slight varus thrust. His radiographs reveal mild-to-moderate medial compartment osteoarthritis with varus alignment. What surgical treatment strategy likely will alleviate his pain?

Distal femoral osteotomy

2%

11/546

Unicompartmental knee replacement

14%

77/546

High tibial osteotomy (HTO), lateral closing wedge

31%

168/546

HTO, medial opening wedge with decreased tibial slope

51%

280/546

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This patient had a previous anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterolateral complex injury. With chronic instability and osteoarthritis, the best option is HTO with a decrease in the tibial slope to reduce anterior laxity. Distal femoral osteotomy is better suited to address valgus malalignment. The lateral closing-wedge osteotomy would not allow for adequate correction of the tibial slope. Unicompartmental knee replacement is not indicated when there is ligament instability. If the patient continues to experience instability following correction of the varus malalignment, reconstruction of the ACL and posterolateral corner would be appropriate at that time.

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