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Review Question - QID 8101

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QID 8101 (Type "8101" in App Search)
A 33-year-old woman has had plantar first metatarsophalangeal joint pain for 3 years. Examination reveals that she is tender under the medial sesamoid. She has no swelling or ecchymosis. The first metatarsophalangeal joint motion is equal and stable bilaterally. Radiographically, there is some fragmentation of the medial sesamoid with increased density in some of the fragments. Various orthotic and shoe modifications have failed to provide relief. What is the most appropriate management?
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