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Review Question - QID 8052

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QID 8052 (Type "8052" in App Search)
Figure 30 shows the radiograph of a 27-year-old patient who has had a medial forefoot prominence since he was a child. Over the past 6 years he notes progressive pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Modified shoe wear, custom orthotics, and use of pads and toe spacers have failed to provide relief. He continues to experience daily pain that affects both employment and recreation activities. Clinical examination reveals good maintenance of first metatarsophalangeal joint motion and no evidence of first tarsometatarsal joint hypermobility. What is the most appropriate treatment?
  • A

Continued nonsurgical management

0%

0/4

Austin Chevron osteotomy

25%

1/4

Biplanar distal first metatarsal Chevron osteotomy

50%

2/4

Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy

0%

0/4

Lapidus procedure

25%

1/4

  • A

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The hallux valgus deformity consists of a congruent joint with a moderately severe abnormal distal metatarsal articular angle (DMAA). As such, the procedure that will best correct the deformity is a biplanar distal first metatarsal Chevron osteotomy. The patient has undergone an extended course of nonsurgical management with multiple modalities; therefore, further nonsurgical management is unlikely to relieve his pain. An Austin Chevron osteotomy will not correct the abnormal DMAA. He does not have an increased 1-2 intermetatarsal angle so a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy will not produce the desired correction. No hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal joint is noted so a Lapidus procedure is not indicated.

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