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Review Question - QID 785

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QID 785 (Type "785" in App Search)
A 10-year-old girl complains of foot pain for the past 4 weeks while playing basketball for her school team. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. What is the most appropriate treatment?
  • A

coalition excision with fat interposition

15%

577/3846

coalition excision with extensor digitorum brevis interposition

7%

282/3846

subtalar arthrodesis

1%

20/3846

4 weeks of immobilization in a short leg cast

75%

2879/3846

excision of accessory navicular

2%

63/3846

  • A

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The history and imaging are consistent with a symptomatic calcaneonavicular coalition. The short duration of pain with no known history of prior symptoms warrant a trial of non-operative treatment with immobilization.

Symptomatic hindfoot coalition is a relatively rare condition, occurring in approximately 1% of the population. The two most common locations are the talocalcaneal (middle facet) and calcaneonavicular joints. Diagnosis should be suspected in the pre-teen or teenage patient with insidious or sudden onset of pain in the midfoot to hindfoot, and/or a frequent history of ankle sprains.

Vincent reviews the management of tarsal coalitions and the painful flatfoot. The authors notes that the initial management of symptomatic coalitions should consist of a trial of immobilization with transition to an orthosis.

Mosca in a more recent review also notes that surgery should be reserved for those who have failed a prolonged initial nonoperative course of treatment.

Incorrect answers:
Answers 1 and 2: Coalition resection, with or without interposition, would only be considered if the patient had recurrent symptoms after a trial of non-operative treatment
Answer 3: Subtalar arthrodesis is rarely indicated in young patients with calcaneonavicular coalitions
Answer 5: The exam and imaging are not consistent with an accessory navicular

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