Review Question - QID 7633

Figures 45a and 45b show sagittal T1-weighted MRI scans of a 35-year-old man who has had dominant extremity shoulder pain and weakness for the past 6 months. He denies any history of injury. Examination reveals full range of active and passive motion, negative Hawkins and Neer impingement signs, 5/5 abduction strength, 3+/5 external rotation strength with arm adducted at his side, and negative belly press, Hornblower's sign, Gerber lift-off, and O'Brien's test. Radiographs are unremarkable. An MR arthrogram shows no rotator cuff or labral tears and no paralabral cysts. What is the next most appropriate step in management?