Review Question - QID 7351

A 17-year-old high school basketball player reports chronic pain in the posterior aspect of the right ankle. He denies any injury. His pain is made worse by jumping and "taking off" the right leg while doing lay-ups. Examination reveals no discernible swelling. He has full active and passive range of motion of the ankle, although maximal passive plantar flexion is painful posteriorly. He is unable to do a single-leg toe raise. He has no tenderness or palpable mass over the Achilles tendon. Motor function to the foot is within normal limits, and his neurovascular examination is intact. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 63a and an MRI scan is shown in Figure 63b. Which of the following treatment options has the highest likelihood of success for this condition?