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Review Question - QID 6964

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QID 6964 (Type "6964" in App Search)
A still active 86-year-old pastry chef falls in her kitchen and notes pain and deformity of her little finger. There are no open wounds. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a and 49b. What is the most appropriate management?
  • A
  • B

Closed reduction and splinting in metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension

3%

10/292

Closed reduction and splinting in MCP joint flexion and PIP joint extension

36%

106/292

Reduction and percutaneous fixation

47%

137/292

Open reduction and internal fixation

7%

20/292

Buddy taping and early range of motion

1%

4/292

  • A
  • B

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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The fracture of the proximal phalanx is clearly displaced. There is slight comminution at the area of the fracture. Closed reduction is likely to fail due to the forces of the extensor, flexor, and intrinsic mechanisms. Percutaneous fixation, unlike open fixation techniques, avoids likely problems with stiffness.

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