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Review Question - QID 6918

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QID 6918 (Type "6918" in App Search)
A 30-year-old man who sustained a work-related injury 6 weeks ago reports persistent back and left-sided buttock pain that has been attributed to lumbar transverse process fractures. A pelvic radiograph and CT scans obtained 2 days ago are seen in Figures 17a through 17c. What is the best treatment for his injury?
  • A
  • B
  • C

Continued nonsurgical management

2%

14/590

Posterior open reduction and internal fixation with tension band plating

3%

19/590

Posterior iliosacral screws

27%

161/590

Anterior open reduction and internal fixation

1%

3/590

Anterior open reduction and internal fixation and posterior fixation

66%

387/590

  • A
  • B
  • C

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Fortunately, surgical treatment of sub-acute pelvic ring injuries is relatively uncommon as acute management has become more common. Delayed reconstruction of pelvic ring malunion and impending malunion is rare. Nonsurgical management may have a role as long as the hemipelvis does not flex, shorten, and/or externally rotate. The AP pelvic radiograph suggests that all three motions are happening in this patient. These are just a few of the indications to repair the pelvic ring and this is best done with anterior and posterior fixation. Anterior symphyseal plating will help correct most of the deformity. Posterior fixation can and should be added to lessen the forces on the anterior ring reconstruction when repair is performed in a sub-acute or delayed fashion. Posterior fixation can help obtain a more anatomic reduction and helps decrease the risk of anterior hardware failure.

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