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Review Question - QID 6743

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QID 6743 (Type "6743" in App Search)
A 32-year-old laborer reports left ankle pain and deformity. History reveals that he sustained a left ankle fracture 2 years ago and was treated with closed reduction and casting. Radiographs are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. What is the most appropriate management?
  • A
  • B
  • C

Bracing and physical therapy

1%

11/1000

Intra-articular injection of steroids into the ankle joint, bracing, and physical therapy

1%

14/1000

Intra-articular injection of hyaluronic acid product into the ankle joint, bracing, and physical therapy

0%

3/1000

Ankle fusion

15%

148/1000

Corrective osteotomy of the fibula and medial malleolus with reconstruction of the syndesmosis if unstable

82%

817/1000

  • A
  • B
  • C

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Corrective osteotomy of fibular malunions, with appropriate lengthening, even in the presence of early arthritis, has been shown to decrease ankle pain and increase stability. Reduction and bone grafting of the medial malleolar nonunion is also needed. There is no evidence supporting the use of intra-articular steroids or hyaluronic acid in the ankle joint. Lateral talar displacement of even 1 mm has been reproducibly shown to decrease tibiotalar contact by 40% to 42%, causing a predisposition to arthritis.

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