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Review Question - QID 524

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QID 524 (Type "524" in App Search)
An 82-year-old female sustains an intertrochanteric hip fracture and is treated with a sliding hip screw. What is the most appropriate definitive step in treating the failure seen in figure A?
  • A

Non-weight bearing

1%

6/1021

Valgus proximal femoral osteotomy

7%

69/1021

Total hip arthroplasty

81%

827/1021

Revision open reduction and internal fixation

10%

105/1021

Proximal femoral resection

1%

9/1021

  • A

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Figure A shows superior cutout of the lag screw from the sliding hip screw as well as the superior cannulated screw used for an "antirotation" device.

In the referenced review article by Haidukewych and Berry, salvage of failed treatment of hip fractures in the elderly is limited by bone quality and comorbidities. They recommend total hip arthroplasty in this instance to restore function, decrease pain, and limit periods of immobilization. They mention that the major challenges for arthroplasty are: assessing the need for acetabular resurfacing, selecting the femoral implant, and managing the greater trochanter.

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