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Review Question - QID 494

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QID 494 (Type "494" in App Search)
A 20 year-old distance runner developed proximal tibial pain 6 weeks ago. Initially it was only painful while running, but she now has pain with walking. There is no knee effusion. The radiographs are normal. The MRI is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
  • A

Protected weight-bearing with crutches

91%

3917/4295

Switch to elliptical for lower impact exercise

3%

149/4295

Prescription anti-inflammatory medicines

2%

93/4295

Arthroscopic surgery

2%

88/4295

Open reduction and internal fixation

1%

30/4295

  • A

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Tibial stress fractures are relatively common overuse injuries that can often be difficult to treat. Differential includes medial tibia stress syndrome (shin splints), periostitis, infection, bursitis, neoplasm, exertional compartment syndrome, or nerve entrapment. Other comorbid medical conditions, including the female athlete triad, need to be carefully evaluated and treated. As Young describes, nonoperative treatment with protected weightbearing is the standard, but surgical intervention may be necessary if symptoms are not responsive to initial nonoperative treatment. For shaft fractures, intramedullary nailing may allow return to sport but does not guarantee healing. Plain radiographs are usually normal early on but with time may show periosteal reaction, new bone formation, or even a distinct fracture line. The typical posteromedial stress fracture is considered lower risk, whereas the anterior or “dreaded black line” stress fractures are considered higher risk. Ishibashi showed that MRI was better than bone scan for evaluating these injuries.

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