Review Question - QID 4711

A 63-year-old patient presents with periprosthetic joint infection 3 years after primary total knee arthroplasty. A radiograph of her knee is seen in Figure A. She undergoes 2-stage revision total knee arthroplasty. Radiographs taken at the time of explantation are seen in Figure B. An articulating antibiotic spacer is placed. Two months later, she is deemed to be free of infection and is taken to the operating room for the second stage operation. Intraoperatively, it is noted that the collaterals are intact and the previous tibial tubercle osteotomy had healed. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy at this point?