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Review Question - QID 3905

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QID 3905 (Type "3905" in App Search)
A 25-year-old military service member presents four weeks after sustaining an inversion ankle injury with continued severe pain despite conservative treatment. Anterior drawer testing and MRI obtained at initial presentation demonstrated a tear of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL). Exam reveals improved swelling but significant pain with light touch about the dorsal foot and anterolateral distal leg. Management should include prescription of a medication that acts by which of the following mechanisms?
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