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Review Question - QID 3614

QID 3614 (Type "3614" in App Search)
A 56-year-old man reports progressively worsening left knee pain after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 6 years ago. He was initially very happy with his progress, but 18 months after surgery he began to have knee pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. Laboratory values reveal a C-reactive protein of 0.1 mg/dL (normal 0.0-0.6 mg/dL) and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 3 mm/h (normal 0-15 mm/h). An aspiration of the knee reveals 157 leukocytes/ml with 18% polymorphonucleocytes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
  • A
  • B

One-stage revision

89%

3959/4425

Irrigation and debridement with polyethylene spacer exchange

3%

128/4425

Antibiotic impregnated cement spacer placement

1%

30/4425

Two-stage revision

6%

253/4425

Broad-spectrum, empiric oral antibiotics

1%

34/4425

  • A
  • B

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The history, radiographs, and laboratory values are consistent with aseptic loosening. The lateral radiograph demonstrates a thin cement mantle that has separated from the prosthesis. The question stem details that infection is not likely given the normal serology and aspirate values. A one-stage revision of the arthroplasty components is the most appropriate next step in management among the options provided.

Brown and Bartel present a Level 5 review of the intrinsic and extrinsic factors that can effect wear behavior in arthroplasty bearing surfaces. They state that increased sliding distance, third body wear, and impingement can be sources for accelerated wear rates of bearings.

Gonzalex and Mekhail present a Level 5 review discussing the etiologies for a failed joint arthroplasty. Sources identified for continued pain were aseptic loosening, component failure, patellar dysfunction, infection, or complex regional pain syndrome.

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