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Review Question - QID 3202

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QID 3202 (Type "3202" in App Search)
A 67-year-old man 6 years status post right total hip arthroplasty falls while walking his dog. He complains of pain and is unable to bear weight through the right leg. He denies any hip or thigh pain prior to this fall. A radiograph is provided in figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
  • A

Traction for 3 weeks followed by 2 months of non-weight bearing mobilization

0%

5/3573

Open reduction and plate fixation with cable augmentation proximally

65%

2316/3573

Revision arthroplasty with a cementless long stem bypassing the fracture site by two cortical diameters

25%

903/3573

Revision arthroplasty with cemented femoral stem bypassing the fracture site by two cortical diameters

2%

80/3573

Revision arthroplasty with cementless long stem bypassing the fracture site by two cortical diameters and allograft strut augmentation

7%

252/3573

  • A

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The radiograph demonstrates an oblique fracture of the femur at the tip of the stem. The stem is stable within the proximal segment, a Vancouver B1 fracture. Illustration A depicts the Vancouver Classification of femoral periprosthetic hip fractures. B1 fractures are most appropriately treated with plate fixation. Choices 3 and 5 are appropriate treatments for B2 and B3 fractures, respectively.

Ricci et al reviewed 50 Vancouver B1 patients treated with indirect reduction and fixation utilizing a lateral plate without allograft strut augmentation. All patients went on to union. One was complicated by infection.

In an instructional course lecture, Ricci reviews the evaluation, classification, and management of femoral periprosthetic hip fractures.

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