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Review Question - QID 317

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QID 317 (Type "317" in App Search)
A 14-year-old boy presents 6 months after spraining his right ankle. Radiographs obtained at the time of injury are shown in Figure A. He returns to clinic with persistent right ankle pain. The patient denies fevers, and has an ESR of 35 mm/h (nl 0-20). CRP and WBC are normal. Current radiographs and MRI images are shown in Figures B, C, and D. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D

Casting of the ankle and observation

5%

107/2114

CT of the tibia

2%

52/2114

Oral antibiotic therapy, with outpatient follow-up in 6 weeks

2%

52/2114

Biopsy and culture of the tibial lesion

86%

1822/2114

Urgent ankle arthrotomy

3%

66/2114

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D

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The patient's presentation is consistent with subacute osteomyelitis, with the development of a Brodie's abscess as shown in Figures B-D.

McCarthy et al in their ICL on pediatric musculoskeletal infections state that initially, the most important aspect of treating children and adolescents with subacute hematogenous osteomyelitis is ruling out tumors. Therefore, in addition to cultures of involved tissue, a biopsy is needed. They also state that if infection is confirmed, treatment consists of administration of appropriate antibiotics and, when the osteomyelitis is chronic (with symptoms for more than one month), débridement and removal of any sequestrum may be required. Patients with this condition usually do not have any constitutional symptoms, and lab work-up may be normal.

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