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Review Question - QID 3095

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QID 3095 (Type "3095" in App Search)
A 72-year-old female returns to clinic for 15 year follow up of left total hip arthroplasty. She ambulates without any assistive devices, has no pain, and denies any recent fevers or systemic illness. A radiograph is provided in figure A. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
  • A

Follow up radiographs in 3 years

21%

925/4371

Follow up radiographs in 5 years

2%

90/4371

Revision surgery with femoral head and polyethylene exchange and retroacetabular bone grafting

62%

2714/4371

Revision of acetabular component with jumbo cup and femoral head exchange

11%

493/4371

Revision of acetabular component with jumbo cup and femoral stem revision

3%

133/4371

  • A

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The radiograph demonstrates osteolytic lesions behind the acetabular cup and eccentric wear of the polyethylene with superior migration of the femoral head within the cup. Options 1 and 2 are poor choices because the osteolysis must be addressed to prevent further bone loss and eventual loosening of the implant. The acetabular cup remains in acceptable position and does not need to be revised unless found to be grossly loose intraoperatively. The osteolytic lesions need to be addressed with bone grafting to prevent cavitary bone loss. The femoral stem shows no indication of loosening or osteolysis around the stem and can be retained.

Maloney et al reported a case series of 35 patients who underwent femoral head and polyethylene exchange with retroacetabular bone grafting of osteolytic lesions. All 35 cups remained stable and had not been revised at 2 years.

Maloney et al discusses the treatment of osteolytic defects following hip and knee arthroplasty at the 2007 Implant Wear Symposium.

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