Review Question - QID 220043

A 24-year-old male who is four years status post left arthroscopic ACL reconstruction presents with left knee pain. The patient endorses associated fevers and chills over the past several days, and he reports a similar episode of pain involving his right shoulder approximately three weeks prior. Examination of the left knee is significant for a palpable effusion and severe pain with passive flexion and extension. A diffuse rash is also noted along the patient’s trunk and chest. An aspiration of the left knee is performed, with a resultant white blood cell count of 65,000. Cultures of the aspirate grow gram-negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?